Sounds like B to me because the problem has a solution! I would looooveee if you could head over an give me some help on my question?! thanks!
Answer:
ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd
Step-by-step explanation:
ddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddddd
A=P(1+R)^n
A=amount in 10 years
P=original amount (200)
R=rate(o.o6)
n=number of times compunded(20)
A=200x1.06^20
=641.4270944
Therefore Rachel will have 641.42 in 10 years
<h3>
Answer:</h3>
- A) p = 5, one solution
- B) no solutions
- C) infinite solutions
<h3>
Step-by-step explanation:</h3>
A) Add 19-5p to each side of the equation:
... 10 = 2p
... 5 = p . . . . . divide by the coefficient of p
B) Subtract 5p from both sides of the equation:
... -9 = -19 . . . . . there is <em>no value of p</em> that will make this true. (No solution.)
C) Subtract 5p from both sides of the equation:
... -9 = -9 . . . . . this is true for <em>every value of p</em>. (Infinite solutions.)
