Answer:
Investment period = 24 years
Explanation:
The total amount that an investment made today would become if invested at a particular rate for certain number of years is known as the future value.
The $1,200,000 is the desired future value, the $296, 375 is the present value and the 6% is the interest rate.
FV = PV × (1+r)^n
1,200,000 = 296,375 × (1.06)^(n)
(1.06)^(n) = 1200000/96,375
(1.06)^(n) =4.048924504
find the log of both sides
n log 1.06= log 4.048924504
n= log 4.048924504/log 1.06
n = 24
It will take 24 years
Answer:
The journals entry to record depreciation on the equipment for 2016 will be:
Debit Depreciation expense $14,000
Credit Accumulated depreciation $14,000
<em>(To record depreciation expense for Year 2016)</em>
Explanation:
Under straight-line method, depreciation expense is (cost - residual value) / Estimated useful life = ($150,000 - $10,000) / 10 years = $14,000 yearly depreciation expense. This applies to Years 2015 and 2016.
The change in the estimate in Year 2017 will not affect the depreciation expense for 2016 based on the previous parameters,
The correct answer is personal income.
A country’s personal income is the amount of income received by all of the country’s people in a given time period.
Answer:
d. $96,914
Explanation:
Parker Co. can execute money market hedge in following steps:
(1) Parker Co. pledges Receivable of SF200,000 to borrow SF190,476 with rate 5% in Switzerland; SF190,476 = SF200,000/ (1+5%)
so it has to pay interest expense of SF9,524 in 360 days. The receivable of SF200,000 is enough for both principal and interest in 360 days.
(2) Then it sells SF190,476 at spot rate $0.48 to get $91,428
(3) Then it deposits $91,428 in US with rate 6% to get back $96,914 in 360 days
; $96,914 = $91,428 * (1+6%)
Answer:
$31,046
Explanation:
You take the $50,000 and divide it by 1.10^5 = $31,046
