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LiRa [457]
3 years ago
6

For the expression,use a property to write an equivalent expression. Tell which property you used. 3y+4y=

Mathematics
2 answers:
Komok [63]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

7y

Step-by-step explanation:

3y+4y=7y

Oksi-84 [34.3K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: Expression: 4y+3y

Property: Commutative Property

Step-by-step explanation:

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HELP WITH THESE 3 QUESTIONS (BRIANLIEST AND 50 POINTS) hint: question 1 is answered (NO LINKS)
Rasek [7]

Answer:

45 points in round 3

Step-by-step explanation:

x + 30 + 25 = 100

combine like terms

30+25 = 55

x + 55 = 100

  - 55     - 55

--------------------

x = 45

therefore, Amos scored 45 points in round 3

hope this helps! :D

have a MIRACULOUS day, and brainliest is immensely appreciated!! <3

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Write the quotient in scientific notation and in
san4es73 [151]

Answer:

3.64 × 10(raised to the power 7)

2.6 × 10⁴

7 0
2 years ago
1. *
slavikrds [6]

Answer:

I am not so clear about this question

3 0
3 years ago
For f (x) = 9 * 81^x evaluate f(-1/2)
LekaFEV [45]

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = 9 * 81^x

When x = -1/2,

f(-1/2) = 9 * 81^(-1/2) = 9 * (1/9) = 1.

8 0
3 years ago
he number of surface flaws in plastic panels used in the interior of automobiles has a Poisson distribution with a mean of 0.02
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

a) 98.01%

b) 13.53\%

c) 27.06%

Step-by-step explanation:

Since a car has 10 square feet of plastic panel, the expected value (mean) for a car to have one flaw is 10*0.02 = 0.2  

If we call P(k) the probability that a car has k flaws then, as P follows a Poisson distribution with mean 0.2,

P(k)= \frac{0.2^ke^{-0.2}}{k!}

a)

In this case, we are looking for P(0)

P(0)= \frac{0.2^0e^{-0.2}}{0!}=e^{-0.2}=0.9801=98.01\%

So, the probability that a car has no flaws is 98.01%

b)

Ten cars have 100 square feet of plastic panel, so now the mean is 100*0.02 = 2 flaws every ten cars.

Now P(k) is the probability that 10 cars have k flaws and  

P(k)= \frac{2^ke^{-2}}{k!}

and  

P(0)= \frac{2^0e^{-2}}{0!}=0.1353=13.53\%

And the probability that 10 cars have no flaws is 13.53%

c)

Here, we are looking for P(1) with P defined as in b)

P(1)= \frac{2^1e^{-2}}{1!}=2e^{-2}=0.2706=27.06\%

Hence, the probability that at most one car has no flaws is 27.06%

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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