Answer and Explanation:
The transactions 3 6 and 8 represents that the expenses are incurred which results in increased and expenses and the transaction 4 and 5 shows that there is an increased in revenue
The journal entry is shown below:
For transaction 3
Rent expense
To Cash
(Being the rent expense is paid for cash is recorded)
As the expense has debit balance so it would be increased
For transaction 6
Electricity expenses Dr
To Cash
(Being the energy usage is paid for cash is recorded)
As the expense has debit balance so it would be increased
For transaction 8
Advertising expense Dr
To Account payable
(Being the advertising expense is recorded)
As the expense has debit balance so it would be increased
For transaction 4
Account receivable Dr
To Service revenue
(Being the service is provided)
As the revenue has credit balance so it would be increased
For transaction 5
Cash Dr
To Service revenue
(Being the service provided is recorded)
As the revenue has credit balance so it would be increased
The attachment is provided for better understanding
The other transactions represent the assets, liabilities and stockholder equity
Answer:
The balance of Work in Process as of April 30 is $3,470.
Explanation:
Work in Process
Apr. 1 Balance 6,600
Apr 30 Direct materials 51,600
Apr 30 Direct labor 190,900
Apr 30 Factory overhead 57,270
Apr. 30 Goods finished = Opening Balance + Direct Material + Direct labor + Factory overheads - Goods Finished during the April
Apr. 30 Goods finished = 6,600 + 51,600 + 190,900 + 57,270 -302,900 = 3,470
Finished Goods
Apr. 1 Balance 16,000
Apr 30 Goods finished 302,900
Answer:
be honest with stuffs
pay enough attention to every thing and everyone
Answer:
The new Quantity to be sold at $1 is 200 in the short run
Explanation:
The question is to determine the Popsicle sold each day in the short run for a price rise of $1
The formula to use for the Price elasticity of supply in short run
(New Quantity demanded - Old Quantity demanded )/ Old Quantity + New Quantity/ 2
÷
(New Price - Old Price) / (Old Price + New Price)/ 2
The formula can also be simply written as
[(Q2 – Q1)/{(Q1 + Q2)/2}] / [(P2 – P1)/{(P1 + P2)/2}]
Step 2: Solve using the formula
Old Quantity = 100
New Quantity = Q2
Old Price = 0.50
New Price = $1
Solve:
[(Q2 – 100)/{(100+ Q2)/2}] / [(1 – 0.50)/{(0.50 + 1)/2}] = 1
=100 + Q2= 3Q2-300
= 2Q2= 400
Q2= 400/2
Q2= 200
The new Quantity to be sold at $1 is 200
Answer:
Personally, as an investor I would be concerned but I would be willing to wait for 3-5 more years to help the CEO diversify the markets.
Explanation:
A company that makes a consistent loss is never a good buy for an investor. However, Amazon has done a couple of things over the last two decades that can give investors some confidence.
For one, the company has grown in revenue and the number of products they offer every year since it's inception. What began as an online book seller now sells everything, from facial creams to make up to electronics.
Amazon has also maintained a first-mover advantage and almost has a monopoly on the e-commerce business in the United States.
With such a strong position and a $140 billion in revenues, the company is almost too big to fail since their debt is very little. With such firepower, the company can further transform and diversity to become profitable and formidable.
