Which is a table of values for y = x - 6? I don't know how to solve functions
2 answers:
I Have made a table for you. You start by making a table, <span>To graph with a table you simply pick numbers for </span>x<span> and solve for </span>y<span> by plugging </span>x<span> into the equation. This gives you the points to graph.</span>
Hi,
A table of values is a set of numbers that could be equal to x and a set of values that could be equal to y. This is pre-algebra, I'm guessing, so you could solve it this way:
y = x - 6
So what would happen if x was 3? It would be y = 3 - 6, which would be -3.
What would happen if y was 4? Y = 4 - 6, which is -2.
If y was 5? 6? 7?
You take all these "what if's" and put them in a chart, like below. That's called a "table of values" :)
A table of values is a set of numbers that could be equal to x and a set of values that could be equal to y. This is pre-algebra, I'm guessing, so you could solve it this way:
y = x - 6
So what would happen if x was 3? It would be y = 3 - 6, which would be -3.
What would happen if y was 4? Y = 4 - 6, which is -2.
If y was 5? 6? 7?
You take all these "what if's" and put them in a chart, like below. That's called a "table of values" :)
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a) Probability of both being males is 27%
b) Probability of both being females is 23%
c) Probability of having exactly one male and one female is 50%
Step-by-step explanation:
a)
The probability that the birth is a male can be written as
(which corresponds to 52%)
While the probability that the birth is a female can be written as
(which corresponds to 48%)
Here we want to calculate the probability that over 2 births, both are male. Since the two births are two independent events (the probability of the 2nd to be a male does not depend on the fact that the 1st one is a male), then the probability of both being males is given by the product of the individual probabilities:
And substituting, we find
So, 27%.
b)
In this case, we want to find the probability that both children are female, so the probability
As in the previous case, the probability of the 2nd child to be a female is independent from whether the 1st one is a male or a female: therefore, we can apply the rule for independent events, and this means that the probability that both children are females is the product of the individual probability of a child being a female:
And substituting
We find:
Which means 23%.
c)
In this case, we want to find the probability they have exactly one male and exactly one female child. This is given by the sum of two probabilities:
- The probability that 1st child is a male and 2nd child is a female, namely
- The probability that 1st child is a female and 2nd child is a male, namely
So, this probability is
We have:
Therefore, this probability is
So, 50%.
Learn more about probabilities:
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