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3 years ago

Identify the x- and y-intercepts of the graph

Mathematics

1 answer:

Tems11 [23]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

The x- intercept is where the graph crosses the x- axis, that is

( $\frac{1}{3}$ , 0 )

The y- intercept is where the graph crosses the y- axis, that is

(0, 1 )

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Tina is making a scale model of A monument that is 155 feet tall she uses a scale of 1 inch = 5 feet how tall should Tina make h

fenix001 [56]

Tina should make 31 inch tall model to replicate 155 feet tall monument.

Step-by-step explanation:

This problem can be solved by direct unitary methods easily-

Firstly, Scale is the ratio of the dimension of the original substance to the dimension of a model

Scale= original dimension/ model dimension

Model is the miniaturised representation of a substance.

The monument is 155 feet tall

Tina replicates it with a scale 1inch: 5 feet

Thus, this means that Tina would need 155*1/5 = 31 inch tall model to replicate the complete length of the monument.

Hence Tina needs to make 31-inch tall model.

3 0

2 years ago

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Does anyone know this question???

natima [27]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

8 0

3 years ago

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A shopkeeper bought wheat for rs.35000. Due to leakage in the godown 1/7 of the total wheat was spoiled. He sold the good wheat

sladkih [1.3K]

<h2>Question: </h2>

A shopkeeper bought wheat for rs.35000. Due to leakage in the godown 1/7 of the total wheat was spoiled. He sold the good wheat at a gain of 10% and the spoiled when at a loss of 25%. Find his total gain or loss per cent.

Answer:

<h2>step by step answer:</h2>

In the question we are given a shopkeeper or bought wheat for Rs. 35000. Now, due to leakage 17 of the total wheat is spoiled. Now, he sold the good wheat at 10% gain and the bad wheat at 25% loss. We need to find the total gain/loss percent.

According to the problem, the total cost of wheat is Rs. 35000.

Now, let us find the cost price of the spoiled wheat.

So, the cost of spoiled wheat is 17×Rs35000 which is equal to Rs. 5000.

Hence, the cost price of spoiled wheat is Rs 5000.

As we know that the spoiled wheat was sold at 25% loss, so we can say that if the cost price is considered as 100% so the selling price is considered as (100−25)% or 75%.

So, we got the selling price of spoiled wheat is 75100×5000=Rs3750

So, the cost price of spoiled wheat is Rs.5000 and selling price of spoiled wheat is Rs.3750.

Now, let us find the cost price of the good wheat.

Now, we will consider the good quality of wheat whose cost price is Rs(35000−5000) which is Rs. 30000.

Hence, the cost price is Rs. 30000.

As we know good quality wheat was sold at 10% gain so we can say that, if the cost price is 100% then the selling price will be (100+10)% or 110% .

Hence, the selling price of good quality wheat is 110100×Rs30000 which is Rs. 33000.

So, the cost price of good quality wheat is Rs. 30000 and selling price is Rs. 33000.

Let us find the total selling price of the wheat that the shopkeeper bought.

Now the total selling price of the wheat is Rs.3750+Rs.30000=Rs.36750.

Hence Profit = Total selling price − Total cost price

profit =Rs.36750−Rs.35000

=Rs.1750

profit %

=profitcost price×100%.

=175035000×100%.

=5%.

<h2>So, total profit is 5%.</h2>

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g

Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

$p^{m}$

$0.8^{20} = 1.15\%$

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

$\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}$

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

$\binom{n}{k}$ is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements. In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

$\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}$

therefore, for this questions we have:

$\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%$

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3 years ago

Select the Equivalent Expression!

iVinArrow [24]

Answer:

C is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0

3 years ago