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3 years ago

The sum of potential and kinetic energies in the particles of a substance is called

Physics

2 answers:

olganol [36]3 years ago

6 0

Internal energy.

Explanation:

In any substance/object, the particles inside it (atoms/molecules) constantly move in random directions and with random speeds (this motion is called Brownian motion). As a result, the particles have some kinetic energy (which is proportional to the temperature of the substance). Moreover, the particles interact with each other due to the presence of electrostatic intermolecular forces, and as a result, the particles also have some potential energy.

The sum of the kinetic energies and potential energies of the particles in a substance is called internal energy.

Gemiola [76]3 years ago

3 0

Internal energy would be the answer because it says the sum of energies "IN" the particles.

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3 years ago

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Tresset [83]

Hello!

The Correct Answer would 100% be:

Option "C".

"People in location C would complain about foul taste in water".

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2 years ago

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The y-axis on a distance-time graph would be ____________. time distance speed

natita [175]

Answer:

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2 years ago

If two particles have equal kinetic energies, are their momenta necessarily equal? explain.

Mandarinka [93]

Answer:

No the given statement is not necessarily true.

Explanation:

We know that the kinetic energy of a particle of mass 'm' moving with velocity 'v' is given by

$K.E=\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}$

Similarly the momentum is given by $m\times v$

For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective kinetic energies is given by

$K.E_{1}=\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}$

$K.E_{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}$

Similarly For 2 particles with masses $m_{1},m_{2}$ and moving with velocities $v_{1},v_{2}$ respectively the respective momenta are given by

$p_{1}=m_{1}\times v_{1}$

$p_{2}=m_{2}\times v_{2}$

Now since it is given that the two kinetic energies are equal thus we have

$\frac{1}{2}m_{1}v_{1}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}m_{2}v_{2}^{2}\\\\(m_{1}v_{1})\times v_{1}=(m_{2}v_{2})\times v_{2}\\\\p_{1}\times v_{1}=p_{2}\times v_{2}\\\\\therefore \frac{p_{1}}{p_{2}}=\frac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}............(i)$

Thus we infer that the moumenta are not equal since the ratio on right of 'i' is not 1 , and can be 1 only if the velocities of the 2 particles are equal which becomes a special case and not a general case.

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3 years ago

PLEASEEEEE HELP ME !!!

Elza [17]

Answer:

maybe its heat sorry if it's wrong

because if friction is not in the problem so we are making heat or thermal energy

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2 years ago