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Yuliya22 [10]
3 years ago
12

ICU Window, Inc., is trying to determine its cost of debt. The firm has a debt issue outstanding with seven years to maturity th

at is quoted at 116 percent of face value. The issue makes semiannual payments and has an embedded cost of 10.6 percent annually. What is the company’s pretax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Pretax cost of debt % If the tax rate is 40 percent, what is the aftertax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Aftertax cost of debt %
Business
1 answer:
attashe74 [19]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Explanation:

iate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Pretax cost of debt % If the tax rate is 40 percent, what is the aftertax cost of debt? (Do not round intermediate calculations and enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Aftertax cost of debt %

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Which of the following is an example of the law of diminishing marginal​ returns? A. Holding capital​ constant, when the amount
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

The law of diminishing returns states that as we go on employing more and more unit of input while keeping other inputs constant, the return from each additional unit of input will go on declining.  

This means that the output produced from each additional unit of input will go on declining.

Here, as capital is kept constant and labor is increased by a unit, the output at first increases by 5 units from 20 to 25. But later when input is again increased by a unit, the output increase by only 3 units from 25 to 28.

This shows the law of diminishing marginal returns where the marginal returns from a unit of labor is declining.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that Verizon Wireless has hired you as a consultant to determine what price it should set for calling services. Suppose
Feliz [49]

Answer:

If Verizon charges an optimal two-part price thenconsumer surplus will be zero.

Explanation:

Given a competitive market the consumer surplus will be the area of the demand curve above the market price

This is, between the intersection point with Y axis and a parallel at market price. Ofter represent as a triangle

If a monopolistic company maximize profit It will decrease this consumer surplus as much as it can to gain it from itself.

First it will set price equal to his marginal revenue.

Then, if possible it will charge two tariff a fixed component and a variable component per usage This will extrac all consumer surplus in favor of the firm leaving a consumer surplus of zero.

If Verizon charges an optimal two-part price thenconsumer surplus will be zero.

3 0
3 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
The entry to record the receipt of payment within the discount period on a sale of $1500 with terms of 2/9, n/30 will include a:
nikdorinn [45]

Answer:

B) credit to Accounts Receivable for $1500.

Explanation:

The journal entry to record the given transaction is as follows

Cash $1,470

Sales discounts $30          ($1,500 × 2%)

        To Account receivable $1,500

(Being the receipts of payment is recorded)

While recording this transaction we debited the cash as it increased the assets plus the sales discount is also debited and at the same time we credited the account receivable as it decreased the asset

4 0
3 years ago
Honest Abe's is a chain of furniture retail stores. Integral Designs is a furniture maker and a supplier to Honest Abe's. Honest
Pachacha [2.7K]

Answer:

The discount rate is 12.46%

Explanation:

In this question, we use the Capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

The formula and computation of the discount rate is shown below:

= Risk-free rate of return + (Beta × Market risk premium)

= 3.5% + (1.12 × 8%)

= 3.5% + 8.96%

= 12.46%

Since we have to compute the discount rate for the project that involves the manufacturing of furniture, so we have to use the Integral designs beta instead of the Honest Abe because Integral design is a furniture maker

8 0
3 years ago
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