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MrMuchimi
3 years ago
11

A firm's current profits are $400,000. These profits are expected to grow indefinitely at a constant annual rate of 4 percent. I

f the firm's opportunity cost of funds is 6 percent, determine the value of the firm
(a) the instant before its pays out current profits as devidens
(b) the instant after its pays out current profits as devidens
Business
1 answer:
slavikrds [6]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

value of the firm = 21.20 million

value of the firm =  20.80 million

Explanation:

given data

current profits = $400,000

annual rate = 4 percent

opportunity cost = 6 percent

solution

we get here value of the firm before pays out current profits as dividend is express as

value of the firm = current profits ( 1+opportunity cost  ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................1

put here value

value of the firm = \frac{400000*(1+0.06)}{0.06-0.04}  

value of the firm = 21.20 million

and

value of the firm after pays is

value of the firm = current profits ( 1+annual rate  ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................2

value of the firm =  \frac{400000*(1+0.04)}{0.06-0.04}  

value of the firm =  20.80 million

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1 year ago
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Using the profitability index method, the present value of cash inflows for project flower is $88,000 and the present value of c
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3 years ago
When the price of candy bars is $1.00, the quantity demanded is 500 per day. When the price falls to $0.80, the quantity demande
Wittaler [7]

Answer:

The demand for candy bars is inelastic

Explanation:

The midpoint rule calculate the price elasticity of demand as percentage change in quantity divided by the percentage change in price:

<u>% change in quantity </u>

\frac{Q_2-Q_1}{ \frac{Q_2 + Q_1}{2} }  \times 100

The quantity demanded increased from 500 to 600. We have

Q_1 = 500 \: and \: Q_2 = 600

\implies \frac{600 - 500}{ \frac{600 + 500}{2} }  \times 100 \\  =  \frac{100}{ \frac{1100}{2} } \\  =  \frac{100}{550} \\  =  \frac{2}{11}

<u>% change in price</u>

\frac{P_2-P_1}{ \frac{P_2 + P_1}{2} }  \times 100

The price changed from 1 dollar to 0.8 dollars.

\frac{0.8 - 1}{ \frac{0.8 + 1}{2} } =  -  \frac{2}{9}

Price elasticity if demand is

\frac{ \frac{2}{11} \%}{  - \frac{2}{9} \%}  =  -  \frac{9}{11}  =  - 0.82

The negative sign tells us that there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.

Since 0.82 is less than 1, the demand for candy bars is inelastic

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3 years ago
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