Answer:
Expected market return = 9.8%
Explanation:
The expected return on the market can be worked out using the Capital Asset Pricing Model.
<em>The capital asset pricing model is a risk-based model. Here, the return on equity is dependent on the level of reaction of the the equity to changes in the return on a market portfolio. These changes are captured as systematic risk. The magnitude by which a stock is affected by systematic risk is measured by beta.
</em>
Under CAPM, Ke= Rf + β(Rm-Rf)
Rf-risk-free rate (treasury bill rate)- 4.4%
β= Beta - 1.20
Rm= Return on market.- ?
Applying this model, we have
11%= 4.4%+ (R-4.4%)×1.20
0.11-0.044= 1.20×(R-0.04)
0.07
= 1.20R-0.048
Collect like terms
0.07+0.048 = 1.2R
Divide both sides by 1.20
R= (0.07+0.048)/1.20
R=9.83%
Expected market return = 9.8%
Answer:
$10,125 Favorable
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Explanation:
Variable overhead spending variance = Actual Spending - budgeted Spending based on actual quantity
Variable overhead spending variance = (Actual Input x Actual rate) - ( Actual input x Budgeted rate)
Variable overhead spending variance = (10,125 x $29) - ( 10,125 x $30)
Variable overhead spending variance = $293,625 - $303,750
Variable overhead spending variance = $10,125 Favorable
Variable overhead spending variance is
Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used - Actual quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output) × Budgeted variable overhead cost per unit of the cost-allocation base
Answer:
Under the lower-of-cost-or- net realizable value basis of accounting for inventories, the value that Taylor should report for the TVs on the balance sheet is $350 × 5 = $1,750
Explanation:
The lower-of-cost-or- net realizable value basis of accounting for inventories values inventory at the lower of its cost or net realizable value. This basis of accounting gives a <em>faithful representation</em> to the users of the value of assets in inventory that firm holds. This is also <em>prudent</em> in that profits are not overstated in the Income statement.
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Answer:
c) a firm does not have sufficient time to change the level of use some of its inputs.
Explanation:
The definition of short-run in economics is not a term to be used for a specific certain period of time but it means that the period of time is too short that the firms cannot change the level they are using of some of their inputs or costs. It means they do have fixed costs they cannot change. For example, all machinery installed, a yearly rent paid, electricity or others that the firm cannot change unless there is sufficient time. In a short period of time, it will have those costs anyway. The firm cannot change the level of that input. And it is short run of at least one input. It may be many. But it is not necessary to have all inputs unchanged to consider that period of time as short-run.
However, firms can change level of inputs if they have more time. That is cost the long run. All costs are variable costs when we are in long run.
