All categories

1 year ago

You engage in hallway conversations, emails, and phone calls with your team members. what is this considered?

Business

1 answer:

abruzzese [7]1 year ago

6 0

Hallway conversations, emails, and phone calls with your team members is an Informal Communication.

<h3>What are Informal Communications?</h3>

Informal communication is the casual exchange of information among coworkers. It is informal in character and is built on the social connections made at work outside of the traditional hierarchical organizational framework.

There are two types of internal communication: formal and informal. Official channels outlined in the organizational chart are used for formal communication. While informal communication moves more quickly and freely throughout the organization, discussing a wide variety of issues. Oral or written communications are both acceptable.

Hence, Hallway conversations, emails, and phone calls with your team members is an Informal Communication.

To learn more about Informal Communication refer to:

brainly.com/question/24232108

#SPJ4

You might be interested in

Although generous disability insurance can help those who have been permanently injured, it can also increase the likelihood tha

emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

B, Indirect incentive

Explanation:

An incentive is anything that motivates an individual to behave in a certain way. An incentive could range from money to many other things and it is the reason why an individual acts in a certain way.

For example, salary and bonuses are incentives for workers. This makes the worker work better and harder and more efficiently because he/she knows that there is something to encourage him for doing his/her work diligently.

Incentive can be direct or indirect as in the case of the above question.

In the case of the above question, a generous disability insurance can motivate workers to falsely claim to be disabled. This means that the financial implication of the insurance package for disability is most likely the only reason for workers to claim false disability.

Cheers.

4 0

3 years ago

The current price of a non-dividend-paying stock is $40. Over the next year it is expected to rise to $42 or fall to $37. An inv

jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

D. $0.93

Explanation:

Upmove (U) = High price/current price

= 42/40

= 1.05

Down move (D) = Low price/current price

= 37/40

= 0.925

Risk neutral probability for up move

q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)

= (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)

= 0.76161

Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)

= Max(Strike price-High price,0)

= Max(41-42,0)

= Max(-1,0)

= 0

Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)

= Max(Strike price-low price,0)

= Max(41-37,0)

= Max(4,0)

= 4

Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)

= e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)

= 0.93

Therefore, The value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93

8 0

3 years ago

How do banks make a profit?

fiasKO [112]

Banks make a profit by c. charging interest

8 0

2 years ago

Assume that Beaver uses the periodic system, and the end of period ending inventory for January is 110 units. a. Prepare all nec

aleksandr82 [10.1K]

Answer:

Part 1 a

jan 4

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (80 x $8.00) $640

Credit : Revenue $640

jan 11

Debit ; Purchases (150 x $6) $900

Credit : Accounts Payable $900

jan 13

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (120 x $8.75) $1,050

Credit : Revenue $1,050

jan 20

Debit ; Purchases (160 x $7) $1,120

Credit : Accounts Payable $1,120

jan 27

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (100 x $9.00) $900

Credit : Revenue $900

jan 31

Debit ; Cost of Sales (100 x $5 + 150 x $6 + 160 x $7) $2,520

Credit : Inventory $2,520

Part 1 b

Gross Profit = Sales - Cost of Sales

Sales = ( 80 x $8.00 + 120 x $8.75 + 100 x $9.00) = $2,590

Cost of Sales = (100 x $5 + 150 x $6 + 160 x $7) = $2,520

Therefore,

Gross Profit = $2,590 - $2,520

= $70

Part 2 a

jan 4

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (80 x $8.00) $640

Debit : Cost of Sales (80 x $5.00) $400

Credit : Revenue (80 x $8.00) $640

Credit : Inventory (80 x $5.00) $400

jan 11

Debit ; Purchases (150 x $6) $900

Credit : Accounts Payable $900

jan 13

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (120 x $8.75) $1,050

Debit : Cost of Sales (20 x $5.00 + 100 x $6) $700

Credit : Revenue (120 x $8.75) $1,050

Credit : Inventory (20 x $5.00 + 100 x $6) $700

jan 20

Debit ; Purchases (160 x $7) $1,120

Credit : Accounts Payable $1,120

jan 27

Debit ; Accounts Receivable (100 x $9.00) $900

Debit : Cost of Sales (50 x $6.00 + 50 x $7) $650

Credit : Revenue (100 x $9.00) $900

Credit : Inventory (50 x $6.00 + 50 x $7) $650

Part 2 b

Gross Profit = Sales - Cost of Sales

Sales = ( 80 x $8.00 + 120 x $8.75 + 100 x $9.00) = $2,590

Cost of Sales = ($400 + $700 + $650) = $1,750

Therefore,

Gross Profit = $2,590 - $1,750

= $840

Explanation:

Hie, see the attached the full question as images below

Part 1

Note that the question in this part requires us to use the Periodic Inventory System. In Periodic Inventory system, Inventory Valuation and calculation of Cost of Goods Sold is done at the end of the Period, in this case at the end of the month of January.

Part 2

Again it is important to note that the question in this part requires us to use the Perpetual Inventory System. In Perpetual Inventory system, Inventory Valuation and calculation of Cost of Goods Sold is done at the after each and every transaction made.

Overall Comment

The Company use of FIFO should be considered in both the Periodic Inventory System in Part 1 and Perpetual Inventory System in Part 2. FIFO method assumes that the first goods received by the business will be the first ones to be delivered to the final customer.

That said, Cost of Sales for Part 1 are determined and recognized at the end of the period and Cost of Sales for Part 2 are determined and recognized after every sale transaction made

4 0

3 years ago

Clampett, Inc., has been an S corporation since its inception. On July 15, 2020, Clampett, Inc., distributed $44,000 to J.D. His

Serjik [45]

Answer:

-$8,600

Explanation:

Data provided in the question:

Distributions = $44,000

Basis = $42,000

Amount of ordinary income allocated = $10,600

Now,

Capital gain from distribution in excess of basis

= Distribution - Basis - Amount of ordinary income allocated

= $44,000 - $42,000 - $10,600

= -$8,600

here, negative sign depicts there is a capital loss

8 0

3 years ago