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3 years ago

Based on this graph, why are there upper and lower limits for the $?

Business

1 answer:

REY [17]3 years ago

8 0

This graph is indicating a fixed exchange rate that prevents the foreign exchange rate from moving outside of the upper and lower limits.

Answer: Option D.

Explanation:

A fixed exchange rate, now and again called a pegged exchange rate, is a kind of swapping scale system in which a cash's worth is fixed or pegged by a money related authority against the estimation of another money, a container of different monetary forms, or another proportion of significant worth, for example, gold.

In this case, the exchange rate is fixed because the limits are fixed in this case.

You might be interested in

What does it mean for a research topic to be amenable to scientific study using a qualitative approach?

blondinia [14]

If a research topic is amendable to a scientific study, you are able to make appropriate and necessary changes to a topic to make sure the resaerch you are finding follows the topic and is giving you useful information. When you amend a research topic you are just adjusting it to fit your updated wants and needs.

8 0

3 years ago

Allegheny Company ended Year 1 with balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $68,000 and $3450, re

prohojiy [21]

Answer:

What amount will Allegheny report as bad debts Expense on its Year 2 income statement?

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Explanation:

Balances in Accounts Receivable and Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of:

Dr Accounts receivable $ 68,000

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 3,450

Allegheny write off $6300 of Uncollectible Accounts.

Dr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 6,300

Cr Accounts receivable $ 6,300

Allegheny estimates that the ending Allowance for Doubtful Accounts balance should be $5,400

Dr Bad Debt Expense $ 8,250

Cr Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts $ 8,250

Because the company already has a DEBIT balance ($2,850) in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts

it's necessary to register an entry that COMPENSATE ($8,250) the existing value and reflect the value estimated as bad debts ($5,400 = $8,250-$2,850).

If the company applies the allowance method, it means that the account Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts must show as balance the % of estimated value.

Bad accounts are those credits granted by the company and there is no possibility of being charged.

"When customers buy products on credits but the company cannot collect the debt, then it's necessary to cancel the unpaid invoice as uncollectible."

One way is to directly cancel bad debts at the time it was decided that the credit is bad, the total amount reported as bad debt expenses negatively affect the income statement and the accounts receivable are reduced by the same amount, less assets .

The other way is to determine a percentage of the total amount of accounts receivable as bad debts, there are many ways to analyze accounts receivable and calculate the value of bad debts.

When the company has the percentage of uncollectible accounts, the required journal entry is Bad Expenses (debit) with Reserve for Bad Accounts (credit)

At the time of cancellation, since the expenses were recognized before, we only use the Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts (Debit) with accounts receivable (credit), with this we are recognizing the bad credit of the company.

8 0

3 years ago

Information regarding Maxwell’s direct labor cost for the month of January follows: Direct labor hourly rate paid $ 29.20 Total

Umnica [9.8K]

Answer:

std rate $30.64
efficiency variance $6,128.00

Explanation:

We will work the rate variance to obtain the standard rate:

$(standard\:rate-actual\:rate) \times actual \: hours DL \: rate \: variance$

actual rate $29.20

actual hours 11,700

difference $1.44

rate variance $16,800.00

$(standard\:rate-29.2) \times 11,700 = 16,700$

$(standard\:rate= 16,700 \div 11,700 +29.2$

std rate $30.64

Now we can solve for the labor efficiency variance:

$(standard\:hours-actual\:hours) \times standard \: rate = DL \: efficiency \: variance$

std hours 11700

actual hours 11500

std rate $30.64

difference 200

efficiency variance $6,128.00

The diference is positive, sothe variance is favorable.

4 0

2 years ago

Unemployment rates tend to be highest during periods of: Select one: a. recession. b. expansion. c. recovery. d. stagflation.

Contact [7]

Answer:

a. recession.

Explanation:

hope it helped

3 0

2 years ago

Morgan Sondgeroth Inc. began operations in January 2018 and reported the following results for each of its 3 years of operations

stepan [7]

Answer:

Part A) Book Value = $1,080,000

Part B) Book Value = $1,050,000

Explanation:

Part 1: To compute the book value of the common stock at December 31, 2020

To do this, we consider both the preferred and common stock values as follows:

Stockholder's equity:

Preferred Stock = $500,000

Common stock = $750,000

Retained earnings: To calculate retained earnings we need to deduct dividends in arrears to prefered stock holders and then ascribe the remaining value to retained earnings.

Dividend in Arrears= 3 years @ 8% interest per year

= 500,000 x 0.08 x 3= $120,000

Remaining earnings for available to common share holders

= Retained earnings balance- dividend paid to prferred stock holders.

=$800,000 (net income for 2020)- $40,000 (net loss for 2019) - $260,000 (net loss for 2018)

= $800,000-$40,000-$260,000

= $500,000 - Dividend in arrears

= $500,000- $120,000

= $380,000

Book Value of Stockholders' equity

Common Stock equity + Balance of retained earnings

= $700,000 + $380,000

= $1,080,000

The book value per share = $1,080,000/ outstanding shares

= $1,080,000/750,000= $1.44

Part 2: To compute the book value of the common stock at December 31, 2020 Preference stock has liquidating value of $106 per share

Stockholder's equity:

Preferred Stock = $500,000

Preferred stock liquidating premium = (106-100) x 5000

= $6 x 5000= $30,000

Common stock = $750,000

Retained earnings: To calculate retained earnings we need to deduct dividends in arrears to prefered stock holders and then ascribe the remaining value to retained earnings.

Dividend in Arrears= 3 years @ 8% interest per year

= 500,000 x 0.08 x 3= $120,000

Remaining earnings for available to common share holders

= Retained earnings balance- net losses from previous years - dividend paid to prferred stock holders - liquadating premium to preferred stock

=$800,000 (net income for 2020)- $40,000 (net loss for 2019) - $260,000 (net loss for 2018)

= $800,000-$40,000-$260,000

= $500,000 - Dividend in arrears - liquidating

= $500,000- $120,000- $30,000

= $350,000

Book Value of Stockholders' equity

Common Stock equity + Balance of retained earnings

= $700,000 + $350,000

= $1,050,000

The book value per share = $1,080,000/ outstanding shares

= $1,050,000/750,000= $1.4

6 0

3 years ago