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3 years ago

Please help and explain the process

Mathematics

1 answer:

Snowcat [4.5K]3 years ago

5 0

The answer is either $61.62 or $12.72

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HELP PLEASE AND THANK YOU 5JAAB

Gnom [1K]

Answer:

$\bold{Q17}\ \angle A\\\\\bold{Q18}\ R\\\\\bold{Q19}\ T\\\\\bold{Q20}\ \angle B\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle C$

Step-by-step explanation:

Q17

$\overline{WA},\ \overline{AS}\ -\ A\ \text{is common}.\ \text{Therefore your answer is}\ \angle A\\\\\text{for}\ \overline{WS}\ \text{and}\ \overline{WA}\to\angle W\\\\\text{for}\ \overline{WS}\ \text{and}\ \overline{SA}\to\angle S\\\\============================$

For Q18 and Q19.

If ΔABC ≅ ΔSRT (congruent), then

$A\ \leftrightarrow\ S\\ B\ \leftrightarrow\ R\\ C\ \leftrightarrow\ T\\\\============================$

Q20

$\text{If}\ AB\cong AC,\ BD\cong CD,\ RSTU\ \text{is a parallelogram (rectangle)},\ \text{then}\\\\\angle 1\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle2\\\angle3\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle4\\\angle C\leftrightarrow\ \angle B\\\angle 5\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle6\\\angle7\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle 8\\\angle R\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle T\\\angle S\ \leftrightarrow\ \angle U$

4 0

3 years ago

What is the unit rate of 183 miles in 3 hours

HACTEHA [7]

Answer:This is because 183 divided by 3 is 61!

Step-by-step explanation:61:1 or 61 miles per hour! This is because 183 divided by 3 is 61!

6 0

3 years ago

6(-3) + 8 / -2<br><br><br><br> plz help

lubasha [3.4K]

The answer is -22! Good luck! :DD

4 0

4 years ago

I will make you the BRAINLIEST!!pls hurry and answer the following question correctly!

nirvana33 [79]

Well what I would do is take the 24 cups of Sparkling Water and the 6 cups of Cranberry Juice. Now I would do 24/6 so there is 4 Cups of Cranberry Juice per 1 cup of Sparkling Water. Now do 4*1.5 to get your answer

Answer= 6 Cups of Cranberry Juice

8 0

3 years ago

Use the "at least once" rule to find the probability of getting at least one 2 in four rolls of a single fair die.

Alexandra [31]

Answer:

Probability of getting at least one 2 equals 0.5177

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of at least one success is

$P=1-(1-p)^{n}$

where,

'p' is probability of success of 1 trail

'n' is number of events

We have probability of getting 2 is 1/6 thus 'p' = 1/6

Applying values we get

$P=1-(1-\frac{1}{6})^{4}\\\\P= 0.51177$

8 0

3 years ago