Answer:
b.a specific account receivable is decreased for the actual amount of bad debt at the time of write-off.
Explanation:
The journal entry to record the bad debt expense using the write - off method is shown below:
Bad debt expense XXXXX
To Account receivable XXXXX
(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)
So by passing this journal entry we get to know that the bad debt expense should be debited which reflects the actual amount as it increases the expenses while at the same time it reduces the asset account i.e account receivable
Hence, the correct option is b.
The correct answer is B) Prosocial Behaviour. Hope this helps.
Answer:
0.087 = 8.7%
Explanation:
Present value of perpetuity given that payment is done at the end of N-year
= present value * ( 1 + i )^n-1
= 169 * ( 1 + i )^n-1 = 100 / i
∴ ( 1 + i )^n-1 = 100 / 169i ------- ( 1 )
Given that first payment at the end of N years = 2112.50 hence the present value of 2112.50
= 2112.50( 1 + i )^n-1 = 100 / i + 100/ i^2 --- ( 2 )
(given that the increment is with a difference of 100 ) and N-1 = number of years
next step : Input equation 1 into equation 2
2112.50 i^2 = 169i [ 100i + 100 ]
19350 i^2 = 16900i
∴ i = 16900 / 19350 = 0.086956 ≈ 0.087
