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Elena L [17]
3 years ago
6

A skier moves down a 12° slope at constant speed what can you say about the coefficient of friction assume the speed is low enou

gh that the air resistance can be ignored
Physics
1 answer:
BARSIC [14]3 years ago
8 0

The coefficient of friction is 0.213

Explanation:

We start by writing the equation of the forces along the directions parallel and perpendicular to the incline. We have:

Perpendicular direction:

N-mg cos \theta =0 (1)

where

N is the normal reaction of the plane

mg cos \theta is the component of the weight perpendicular to the plane, with

m is the mass

g = 9.8 m/s^2 the acceleration of gravity

\theta=12^{\circ}  is the angle of the incline

Parallel direction:

mg sin \theta - \mu_k N = ma (2)

where :

mg sin \theta is the component of the weight parallel to the slope

\mu_k N is the force of friction, where

\mu_k is the coefficient of friction

N is the normal reaction  

a is the acceleration

In this case, the skier is moving at constant speed, so its acceleration is zero and the equation becomes:

mg sin \theta - \mu_k N =0 (2)

From (1) we find

N=mg cos \theta

And substituting into (2)

mg sin \theta - \mu_k mg cos \theta = 0

Solving for \mu_k,

\mu_k = tan \theta = tan(12)=0.213

Learn more about slope and force of friction here:

brainly.com/question/5884009

#LearnwithBrainly

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2. A pebble is dropped down a well and hits the water 1.5 s later. Using the equations for motion with constant acceleration, de
kow [346]

Answer:

S = 11.025 m

Explanation:

Given,

The time taken by the pebble to hit the water surface is, t = 1.5 s

Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²

Using the II equations of motion

                          S = ut + 1/2 gt²

Here u is the initial velocity of the pebble. Since it is free-fall, the initial velocity

                                u = 0

Therefore, the equation becomes

                            S = 1/2 gt²

Substituting the given values in the above equation

                              S = 0.5 x 9.8 x 1.5²

                                 = 11.025 m

Hence, the distance from the edge of the well to the water's surface is, S = 11.025 m

3 0
3 years ago
Water is boiled at sea level in a coffeemaker equipped with an immersion-type electric heating element. The coffee maker contain
Luden [163]

Answer:

P=1362\ W

t'=251.659\ s is time required to heat to boiling point form initial temperature.

Explanation:

Given:

initial temperature of water, T_i=18^{\circ}C

time taken to vapourize half a liter of water, t=18\ min=1080\ s

desity of water, \rho=1\ kg.L^{-1}

So, the givne mass of water, m=1\ kg

enthalpy of vaporization of water, h_{fg}=2256.4\times 10^{-3}\ J.kg^{-1}

specific heat of water, c=4180\ J.kg^{-1}.K^{-1}

Amount of heat required to raise the temperature of given water mass to 100°C:

Q_s=m.c.\Delta T

Q_s=1\times 4180\times (100-18)

Q_s=342760\ J

Now the amount of heat required to vaporize 0.5 kg of water:

Q_v=m'\times h_{fg}

where:

m'=0.5\ kg= mass of water vaporized due to boiling

Q_v=0.5\times 2256.4

Q_v=1.1282\times 10^{6}\ J

Now the power rating of the boiler:

P=\frac{Q_s+Q_v}{t}

P=\frac{342760+1128200}{1080}

P=1362\ W

Now the time required to heat to boiling point form initial temperature:

t'=\frac{Q_s}{P}

t'=\frac{342760}{1362}

t'=251.659\ s

6 0
4 years ago
What type of relationship exists between acceleration and mass?
likoan [24]
Here, you can derive that by numerical method, as follows:
F = m.a
m = F/a

So, here we can see when we decrease one, other increase by same effect; we can say they are "Indirectly Proportional" to each other!

Hope this helps!
7 0
3 years ago
You have a pendulum clock made from a uniform rod of mass M and length L pivoting around one end of the rod. Its frequency is 1
drek231 [11]

The new oscillation frequency of the pendulum clock is 1.14 rad/s.

     

The given parameters;

  • <em>Mass of the pendulum, = M </em>
  • <em>Length of the pendulum, = L</em>
  • <em>Initial angular speed, </em>\omega _i<em> = 1 rad/s</em>

The moment of inertia of the rod about the end is given as;

I_i = \frac{1}{3} ML^2

The moment of inertia of the rod between the middle and the end is calculated as;

I_f = \int\limits^L_{L/2} {r^2\frac{M}{L} } \, dr = \frac{M}{3L} [r^3]^L_{L/2} =  \frac{M}{3L} [L^3 - \frac{L^3}{8} ] = \frac{M}{3L} [\frac{7L^3}{8} ]= \frac{7ML^2}{24}

Apply the principle of conservation of angular momentum as shown below;

I _i \omega _i = I _f \omega _f\\\\\frac{ML^2}{3} (1 \ rad/s)= \frac{7ML^2}{24} \times \omega _f\\\\\frac{24 \times ML^2}{3 \times 7 ML^2} (1 \ rad/s)= \omega _f\\\\1.14 \ rad/s = \omega _f

Thus, the new oscillation frequency of the pendulum clock is 1.14 rad/s.

Learn more about moment of inertia of uniform rod here: brainly.com/question/15648129

3 0
3 years ago
You’re driving down the highway late one night at 20 m/s when a deer steps out onto the road 35 m in front on you. Your reaction
Salsk061 [2.6K]

Answer:

i would juh hit da deer no kap

Explanation:

4 0
4 years ago
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