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Elena L [17]
3 years ago
6

A skier moves down a 12° slope at constant speed what can you say about the coefficient of friction assume the speed is low enou

gh that the air resistance can be ignored
Physics
1 answer:
BARSIC [14]3 years ago
8 0

The coefficient of friction is 0.213

Explanation:

We start by writing the equation of the forces along the directions parallel and perpendicular to the incline. We have:

Perpendicular direction:

N-mg cos \theta =0 (1)

where

N is the normal reaction of the plane

mg cos \theta is the component of the weight perpendicular to the plane, with

m is the mass

g = 9.8 m/s^2 the acceleration of gravity

\theta=12^{\circ}  is the angle of the incline

Parallel direction:

mg sin \theta - \mu_k N = ma (2)

where :

mg sin \theta is the component of the weight parallel to the slope

\mu_k N is the force of friction, where

\mu_k is the coefficient of friction

N is the normal reaction  

a is the acceleration

In this case, the skier is moving at constant speed, so its acceleration is zero and the equation becomes:

mg sin \theta - \mu_k N =0 (2)

From (1) we find

N=mg cos \theta

And substituting into (2)

mg sin \theta - \mu_k mg cos \theta = 0

Solving for \mu_k,

\mu_k = tan \theta = tan(12)=0.213

Learn more about slope and force of friction here:

brainly.com/question/5884009

#LearnwithBrainly

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4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
An athlete whirls a 7.00 kg hammer 1.8 m from the axis of rotation in a horizontal circle, as
iogann1982 [59]

Answer:

A-500 N

Explanation:

The computation of the tension in the chain is shown below

As we know that

F = ma

where

F denotes force

m denotes mass = 7

And, a denotes acceleration

Now for the acceleration we have to do the following calculations

The speed (v) of the hammer is

v = Angular speed × radius

where,

Angular seed = 2 × π ÷ Time Period

So, v = 2 × π × r ÷ P

v = 2 × 3.14 × 1.8 ÷ 1

= 11.304 m/s

Now

a = v^2 ÷ r

= 70.98912 m/s^2

Now the tension is  

T = F = m × a

= 7 × 70.98912

= 496.92384 N

= 500 N

5 0
2 years ago
A steel wire of length 31.0 m and a copper wire of length 17.0 m, both with 1.00-mm diameters, are connected end to end and stre
Brut [27]

Answer:

The time taken is  t =  0.356 \ s

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The length of steel the wire is  l_1  = 31.0 \ m

   The  length of the  copper wire is  l_2  = 17.0 \ m

    The  diameter of the wire is  d =  1.00 \ m  =  1.0 *10^{-3} \ m

     The  tension is  T  =  122 \ N

     

The time taken by the transverse wave to travel the length of the two wire is mathematically represented as

              t  =  t_s  +  t_c

Where  t_s is the time taken to transverse the steel wire which is mathematically represented as

         t_s  = l_1 *  [ \sqrt{ \frac{\rho * \pi *  d^2 }{ 4 *  T} } ]

here  \rho_s is the density of steel with a value  \rho_s  =  8920 \ kg/m^3

   So

      t_s  = 31 *  [ \sqrt{ \frac{8920 * 3.142*  (1*10^{-3})^2 }{ 4 *  122} } ]

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 And

        t_c is the time taken to transverse the copper wire which is mathematically represented as

      t_c  = l_2 *  [ \sqrt{ \frac{\rho_c * \pi *  d^2 }{ 4 *  T} } ]

here  \rho_c is the density of steel with a value  \rho_s  =  7860 \ kg/m^3

 So

      t_c  = 17 *  [ \sqrt{ \frac{7860 * 3.142*  (1*10^{-3})^2 }{ 4 *  122} } ]

      t_c  =0.121

So  

   t  = t_c  + t_s

    t =  0.121 + 0.235

    t =  0.356 \ s

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