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3 years ago

What is the slope of the line?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Talja [164]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The line intersects at (0, -3) and (2, 1). Slope is m. $m= \frac{y2 - y1}{x2 - x1}$

Sub your values in. $\frac{1--3}{2-0} or \frac{4}{2} or \frac{2}{1}$

Your slope is 2.

You might be interested in

According to government data, 20% of employed women have never been married. If 10 employed women are selected at random, what i

Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

a) $P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

b) $P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)$

$P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107$

$P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268$

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678$

c) For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302$

$P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268$

$P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 8) = 0.677$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\geq 8)=0.0000779$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Bin (n=10 ,p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable "number of women that have never been married" , on this case we now that the distribution of the random variable is:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.2)$

Part a

We want to find this probability:

$P(X=2)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)$

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107$

$P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268$

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678$

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302$

$P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268$

$P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 8) = 0.677$

3 0

3 years ago

50 more points<br> sdadadada

creativ13 [48]

Switch the variable x and y with each other. Then the correct option is B.

<h3>What is inverse of a function?</h3>

Let the function will be

f: X → Y

Then the inverse function will be

f⁻¹: Y → X

The function is given below.

f(x) = 3x – 10

Then the inverse function of the f(x) will be

Put y in place of f(x).

x = 3y – 10

3y = x + 10

y = (x + 10) / 3

Switch the variable x and y with each other.

Then the correct option is B.

Learn more about inverse function here:

brainly.com/question/19425567

#SPJ1

7 0

1 year ago

Which statement is true? A. 6 > 6 B. –8 < –3 C. 5 < –6 D. –12 > –6

Soloha48 [4]

Answer:

Hello!

The statement that is true is B. -8 < -3.

Explanation:

Since negative three is closer to 0 and the positive side, it is greater than negative eight.

Try using a number line if you haven't already. You may find them very helpful. :)

6 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

In a cookie jar 1/4 of the cookies are chocolate chip and 1/2 of the rest are peanut butter what fraction of the cookies are pea

kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

1/4

Step-by-step explanation:

1/2=2/4

2/4+1/4= 3/4

4/4-3/4= 1/4

8 0

3 years ago

The sum of three consecutive even integers is 36 . find the smallest of them

bonufazy [111]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

You can get the three consecutive integers by using <em>algebraic expressions.</em>

Let's solve.

Let x be the <u>smallest even integer</u>.

Let x+2 be the second even integer.

Let x+4 be the largest even integer.

x+x+2+x+4 = 36

3x+6 = 36

3x = 36-6

3x = 30

x = $\frac{30}{3}$

x = 10

Therefore, 10 is the smallest even integer.

x+2 = 10+2 = 12

The second even integer is 12.

x+4 = 10+4 = 14

The largest even integer is 14.

Let's check by adding the three even integers.

10+12+14 = 36

36 = 36

<em>It's correct. </em>

7 0

3 years ago