Answer:
Correct answer: sin x ⇒D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] ; sin⁻¹x ⇒ CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2]
Step-by-step explanation:
In order for the function sin x to have an inverse function sin⁻¹x due to the monotony, the domain is taken D(x) : [- π/2, π/2] and the range of sin⁻¹x is CD(x) : [- π/2, π/2].
God is with you!!!
The answer would be C. The line is best fit so the Y-intercept wouldn't show EXACTLY how much it would cost, just around how much it would cost. (Approximately)
