Answer:
SO expected return on Mkt Portfolio Rm = 10.75%
Explanation:
market degree of risk aversion A = 3
Var = 0.0225 = SD^2
Rf = 4%
What is expected return on Mkt Portfolio ie Rm??
According to CAPM, Rm-Rf = A*SD^2
where SD is Std Dev (Recall SD^2 = Variance)
A is market degree of risk aversion
So we have Rm-4% = 3*0.0225
ie Rm = 4% + 3*0.0225 = 10.75%
SO expected return on Mkt Portfolio Rm = 10.75%
Answer:
Interest expense 18,284.17 debit
Premium on BP 1,965.83 debit
Cash 20,250 credit
Explanation:
procceds 461,795
face value 450,000
premium on bonds payable 11,795
As the cash received exceed the face value then, the bonds were isued at premium.
This will be amortized over the bonds life
3-year bonds with semiannual payment: 6 payment in total
amortization per payment:
11,795 / 6 = 1.965,83
The will post:
the cash disbursement in favor of the bondholder:
450,000 x 9%/2 = 20,250
amortization (1,965.83)
interest expense: 18.284,17
<h3>In the given scenario unemployment rate is 10%
</h3>
Explanation:
In the given problem,
Number of People who are working is 90,000
Number of People who are not working but looking and available is 10,000
Unemployment rate = Percentage of the total labor force that is unemployed but actively looking for employment and ready to work.
Unemployment rate = ((Unemployed people * 100) / (Total people in an economy (Working + Available for work)))
Unemployment rate = ((10000 * 100) / (90000+10000))
Unemployment rate = (1000000 / 100000)
Hence, Unemployment rate = 10%
All salaries related to the factory
15,000+98,000=113,000
<span> Manufacturing overhead describes the difference between manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process and manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period.</span>
Over-applied manufacturing overhead would result if the manufacturing overhead cost applied to work in process is more than the manufacturing overhead cost actually incurred during a period. So, in over-applied overhead the applied overhead is bigger than the actual overhead.
