Answer:
Answer is $15,000
$6,000 share of ordinary income plus $9,000 gain for a $50,000 distribution in excess of her $41,000 stock basis.
A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means
- conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
- The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention
From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.
learn more about exchange rates from:
brainly.com/question/21384395
Answer:
Both low price and high quality.
Explanation:
The characteristics that make a product or service have a perceived value for the consumer, are the various functionalities and benefits that satisfy the needs and desires of the customer. Such benefits are independent of the price of the product or quality, since value is a set of rational or irrational attributes that the consumer perceives, such as the brand image, experience, functionality, product benefits, etc.
Value creation is variable for each consumer group, as each person perceives value as a set of specific attributes that satisfy their desires, so it is not possible to classify low price or high quality as value determinants, as these characteristics change according to the consumer's style.
Therefore, for a company to deliver value to the consumer, it is essential that it conducts segmentation studies and identification of its target audience and from there develop strategies aimed at creating value for its audience.
Answer:
value of the firm = 21.20 million
value of the firm = 20.80 million
Explanation:
given data
current profits = $400,000
annual rate = 4 percent
opportunity cost = 6 percent
solution
we get here value of the firm before pays out current profits as dividend is express as
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+opportunity cost ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................1
put here value
value of the firm = 
value of the firm = 21.20 million
and
value of the firm after pays is
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+annual rate ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................2
value of the firm = 
value of the firm = 20.80 million
Answer:
$52,267
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the break-even level of earnings before interest and taxes between these two options
EBIT/40,000 = [EBIT- ($280,000 ×0.07)]/25,000
EBIT/40,000 = [EBIT - ($19,600)]/25,000
Cross multiply
25,000EBIT=40,000(EBIT-19,600)
25,000EBIT=40,000EBIT-784,000,000
EBIT = $52,267
Therefore the break-even level of earnings before interest and taxes between these two options is $52,267
