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romanna [79]
4 years ago
9

The region in the first quadrant bounded by the x-axis, the line x = ln(π), and the curve y = sin(e^x) is rotated about the x-ax

is. What is the volume of the generated solid?
Mathematics
1 answer:
charle [14.2K]4 years ago
5 0
First, it would be good to know that the area bounded by the curve and the x-axis is convergent to begin with.

\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\ln\pi}\sin(e^x)\,\mathrm dx

Let u=e^x, so that \mathrm dx=\dfrac{\mathrm du}u, and the integral is equivalent to

\displaystyle\int_{u=0}^{u=\pi}\frac{\sin u}u\,\mathrm du

The integrand is continuous everywhere except u=0, but that's okay because we have \lim\limits_{u\to0^+}\frac{\sin u}u=1. This means the integral is convergent - great! (Moreover, there's a special function designed to handle this sort of integral, aptly named the "sine integral function".)

Now, to compute the volume. Via the disk method, we have a volume given by the integral

\displaystyle\pi\int_{-\infty}^{\ln\pi}\sin^2(e^x)\,\mathrm dx

By the same substitution as before, we can write this as

\displaystyle\pi\int_0^\pi\frac{\sin^2u}u\,\mathrm du

The half-angle identity for sine allows us to rewrite as

\displaystyle\pi\int_0^\pi\frac{1-\cos2u}{2u}\,\mathrm du

and replacing v=2u, \dfrac{\mathrm dv}2=\mathrm du, we have

\displaystyle\frac\pi2\int_0^{2\pi}\frac{1-\cos v}v\,\mathrm dv

Like the previous, this require a special function in order to express it in a closed form. You would find that its value is

\dfrac\pi2(\gamma-\mbox{Ci}(2\pi)+\ln(2\pi))

where \gamma is the Euler-Mascheroni constant and \mbox{Ci} denotes the cosine integral function.
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Jack left a tip of $5.75 for his waiter. If this represents 20% of his meal, what was the cost, in dollars, of Jack’s meal witho
Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a commission problem. Here is the formula:

P x R

= 5.75 x 0.20

= $1.15

<em>Jack's tip was $1.15. :D</em>

Key: P = Original Price R = Commission Rate

7 0
3 years ago
What does this mean I don’t quite get it.
vampirchik [111]
The circumference of a circle is the length of the line making the circle.

To find circumference, the formula is

2\pi \times r
So, the answer to this problem would be 31.42
4 0
4 years ago
-x+y=5; 4x+y=10 .
zlopas [31]
Part A: -x+y=5
            +x    +x
             y=x+5
4x+x+5=10
5x+5=10
     -5  -5
5x=5
x=1
1(-x) +y=5
-1+y=5
+1     +1
y=6
The solution is (1,6)
Part B: 
-x+y=5
-1+6=5
5=5
4x+y=10
4(1)+6=10
4+6=10
10=10
3 0
3 years ago
What is the purpose of testing whether β1 = 0? The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not the mean of
Monica [59]

Answer:

The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not there is a significant relationship between x and y

Step-by-step explanation:

  • The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not the mean of the x values is equal to the mean of the y values.

No, since we are not interested if the mean for the two variables x and y are equal, we want to know if we have relationship between the two variables.

  • The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not the regression line provides a good fit for the data

No, if we want to test if the regression line provides a good fit for the data we need to use a Chi square test or other type of test.

  • The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not there is a significant relationship between x and y

Yes, the idea when we have this system of hypothesis:

Null hypothesis: \beta_1 =0

Alternative hypothesis: \beta_1 \neq 0

Is see if we have a significant relationship between x and y, that means that the slope is not equal to 0.

  • The purpose of testing whether β1 = 0 is to determine whether or not there is a cause-and-effect relationship between x and y.

No, when we conduct a regression we never can conclude that we have a cause-relation effect, that's not the goal when we conduct this, the idea is check if we have a type of relationship that can be linear, quadratic or other type of relationship betwen some variables.

8 0
3 years ago
Camp Company had total earnings of $600 million in 2013, out of which it retained 20 percent for future investments. In 2013, it
s344n2d4d5 [400]

Answer: $20

Step-by-step explanation:

First, the earnings per share will be:

= $600 mill / 100 mill shares

= $6 per share

Since the retention ratio is 20%, it means that the payout ratio = 100% - 20% = 80%.

Therefore, the dividend per share will be:

=$6 × 80%

= $6 × 0.8

=$4.80

We will calculate then calculate market price as:

Dividend yield =Dividend per share / Market price

0.04 =$4.80 / Market price

Market price =$4.80 / 0.04

Market price = $120

The price earnings ratio will be:

= Market price / EPS

= $120 / $6

= $20

4 0
3 years ago
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