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kykrilka [37]
4 years ago
9

A wave's _______________ and its frequency have a reciprocal relationship.

Physics
2 answers:
Varvara68 [4.7K]4 years ago
8 0
Wavelength and frequency have a reciprocal relationship. If one doubles, the other halves.
Marina86 [1]4 years ago
4 0

wave frequency and its wavelength is related by the following relation

frequency = \frac{speed}{wavelength}

we can also show this by

f = \frac{v}{\lambda}

now if speed of the wave remains constant then we can say that frequency of wave is inversely depends on the wavelength.

so we can say

<u>wavelength of wave is inversely depends on its frequency</u>

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A constant horizontal F force began to act on the initially immovable body placed on a horizontal surface. After t time the forc
mel-nik [20]

Answer:

The coefficient of friction is (F/(19.6·m)

Explanation:

The given parameters are;

The force applied to the immovable body = F

The time duration the force acts = t

The time the body spends in motion = 3·t

The acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s²

From Newton's second law of motion, we have;

The impulse of the force = F × t = m × Δv₁

Where;

Δv₁ = v₁ - 0 = v₁

The impulse applied by the force of friction, F_f is F_f × (3·t - t) =  F_f × (2·t)

Given that the motion of the object is stopped by the frictional force, we have;

The impulse due to the frictional force = Momentum change = m × Δv₂ = F_f × (2·t)

Where;

Δv₂ = v₂ - 0 = v₂

Given that the velocity, v₂, at the start of the deceleration = The velocity at the point the force ceased to  act, v₁, we have;

m × Δv₂ = F_f × (2·t) = m × Δv₁ = F × t

∴ F_f × (2·t) = F × t

F_f = F × t/(2·t) = F/2

The coefficient of dynamic friction, \mu _k = Frictional force/(The weight of the body) = (F/2)/(9.8 × m)

\mu _k = (F/(19.6·m)

The coefficient of friction, \mu _k = (F/(19.6·m)

5 0
3 years ago
Use hubble's law to determine the distance to a galaxy which is moving away at a velocity of 3,500 km/s. (assume that h = 70 km/
lorasvet [3.4K]
The solution for this problem:
The distance in mega parsec is equal to recession velocity / H, where h is equal to 50 mega parsec.The explanation for this is:1 parsec = 2.E+05 AU, nearly. 50 mega parsec = 1. E+13 AU, nearly. 1 mega means E+06 (million).
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3 years ago
Based on the article “will the real atomic model please stand up?” Why did j.j. Thomson experiment with cathode ray tubes?
soldi70 [24.7K]

The answer is:  to determine that electric beams in cathode ray tubes were actually made of particles

I hope this helps!


3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Zain is standing on a bridge. He tosses a ball upwards, which rises, stops, and then falls all the way to the water (30 meters b
IgorC [24]

Answer:

A. 2.41 s.

B. 24.3 m/s.

Explanation:

vf = vi + 2a*t

where, vf = final velocity

= 0 m/s

vi = final velocity

= 1.5 m/s

a = 9.8 m/s^2

A.

ti = 1.5/(9.8 * 2)

= 0.08 s

Vf^2 = Vi^2 + 2a*s

1.5^2 = 2 * 9.8 * s

S = 0.115 m

Time taken to drop into the water,

30.115 = 1.5*to + 4.9*to^2

to = 2.33 s

Total time taken = ti + to

= 2.33 + 0.08

= 2.41 s.

B.

Vo = 0 m/s

S = 30.115 m

Vf = ?

Using,

Vf^2 = Vo^2 + 2*a*s

= sqrt (2*9.8*30.115)

= 24.3 m/s.

7 0
4 years ago
Two polarizing sheets have their transmission axes crossed so that no light gets through. A third sheet is inserted between the
nika2105 [10]

Answer:

Check the explanation

Explanation:

Kindly check the attached images below for the step by step explanation to the question above.

6 0
3 years ago
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