All categories

3 years ago

Which of the following graphs represents a function with a domain of (-∞, ∞) and a range of (-∞, ∞)?

Mathematics

2 answers:

umka21 [38]3 years ago

6 0

The negative infinity for the x coordinate states that the graph should move to the bottom and the y coordinate is positive infinity so that the graph goes up

the first graph is your answer

alex41 [277]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

option A

Step-by-step explanation:

Domain is the set of all x values and range the set of all y values where the function is defined.

In the first option we have graph on both sides of x. we have graph y for all x values . So, domain is (-∞, ∞)

There is no restriction for y. the graph is for all y values

So range is (-∞, ∞)

In the second option, the graph is above y axis so range is [0,∞)

In the third option, we have graph only for positive value of x

so domain is [0,, ∞)

In the fourth option , the graph is above y axis so range is [0,∞)

You might be interested in

San<br> R<br> APOR is a right triangle. IF RO = 8, what is PO?<br> mios<br> 16

attashe74 [19]

Answer:

PQ = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

Using the cosine ratio in the right triangle and the exact value

cos60° = $\frac{1}{2}$ , then

cos60° = $\frac{adjacent}{hypotenuse}$ = $\frac{RQ}{PQ}$ = $\frac{8}{PQ}$ = $\frac{1}{2}$ ( cross- multiply )

PQ = 8 × 2 = 16

6 0

3 years ago

Why can 0.825 be written as a fraction explain

ale4655 [162]

Answer:

It can be written as 825/1000. You can simplify this to get the simplest form which would be 33/40. All decimals are out of one, they are a part. When you first get a decimal, put the numbers such as 825 on top. The last number is in the thousandths place, so it is out of 1000. 1000 is your denominator. Your fraction is then 825/1000. From here you can simplify if possible.

Hope this helps ^-^

7 0

3 years ago

The Law of Large Numbers states that as the number of trials of an experiment increases, the experimental probability of an even

Lena [83]

The law of large number states that , if number of trials increases in an experiment , in a fair trial where each outcome has same chance of occurring or having equal probabilities,when total number of trials goes higher and higher the probabilities of each single outcome becomes approximately equal.→→In case of Experimental Probability

The Coin Possessed by Jake is a Magic coin.

Now Outcomes received by jake when he tosses the coin certain number of times.He flipped it 100 times, and found that it came up heads 64% of the time. He flipped it another 500 times, and it came up heads 57% of the time. He then flipped it 1000 times, and it came up heads 58% of the time. Then, he flipped it 1500 times, and it came up heads 62% of the time.

Based on the information provided , it appears that coin is not fair . It is Unbiased.So , if we apply law of large numbers here after number of trials will go higher and higher , the chances of coming head will be more than tail i.e theoretical probability of the magic coin coming up heads is> 50%.

To test my hypothesis i have used the information provided by Jake, which shows that coin is not fair. The probability of head has more than tail i.e by 14%, 7%,8% and 12%.

8 0

3 years ago

NARA [144]

Answer:

PB = 1.8

Step-by-step explanation:

PQ = 8 cm, BC = 10 cm and AB = 9 cm

∆ABC is similar to ∆APQ.

Therefore:

$\frac{AB}{AP} = \frac{BC}{PQ}$

Plug in the values

$\frac{9}{AP} = \frac{10}{8}$

Cross multiply

AP × 10 = 8 × 9

AP × 10 = 72

Divide both sides by 10

AP = 7.2

PB = AB - AP

PB = 9 - 7.2

PB = 1.8

4 0

3 years ago

Which is greater, 5 centimeters or 5 millimeters???

Cerrena [4.2K]

5 centimiters is greater because 10 milimeters make a centimeter

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers