Answer:
-5
Step-by-step explanation:
We are given chance of winning a game is 1/50.
In decimal form 1/50 could be written as 0.02.
So, for each game, the chance of winning is 0.02.
Therefore, chance of loss would be = 1 -(0.02) = 0.98.
Chance of loss of 50 independent games = 0.98*0.98*0.98*0.98...... upto 50 times, that is (0.98)^50.
The chance of winning at least once = 1 - (0.98)^50.
We got (0.98)^50 = 0.36417
Therefore, 1 - (0.98)^50 = 1 - 0.36417.
We get 0.63583.
Therefore, correct option is c. 0.6358.
Answer:
V=a3=33=27
Step-by-step explanation:
sorry if its wrong
Answer:
See Explanation Below (Incomplete Question)
Step-by-step explanation:
Question is incomplete.
I'll answer this question on a general term.
(See attachment below)
Figure 1 is used to illustrate complementary angles. Two angles are said to be complementary when they add up to 90°.
So, in figure 1, <1 and <2 are complementary because <1 + <2 = 90°
Figure 2 illustrates supplementary angles. Two angles are said to be supplementary when they add up to 180°.
So, in figure 2, <1 and <2 are supplementary because <1 + <2 = 180°
Figure 3 illustrates adjacent angles. Two angles are said to be adjacent when they share the and vertex
Figure 4 illustrates equivalent angles. Two angles are said to be supplementary when they are equal.
So, in figure 4, <1 and <2 are equivalent because <1 = <2
Apply Difference of Two Squares Formula
(6-4p)(4p+6)=
-(
)
<u>BUT</u>
(6-4p)(4p+6)
is already in the expanded form you probably want to simplify it.
<h2><em>
:)Hope you enjoy this:)</em></h2>
