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Ilia_Sergeevich [38]
3 years ago
14

If f(x) = 4x - 3, what is f(x)^-1?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Assoli18 [71]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

f^{-1}(x)=\dfrac{x+3}{4}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: f(x)=4x-3

We need to find the inverse.

Step 1: Set f(x)=y

y=4x-3

Step 2: Switch x and y

x=4y-3

Step 3: Solve for y

x+3=4y

y=\dfrac{x+3}{4}

Hence, The inverse of given function is y=\dfrac{x+3}{4}

vazorg [7]3 years ago
3 0
<span>f(x) = 4x - 3
.
The problem asks you to find f(-1).
.
All that this is telling you to do is to evaluate f(x) when x equals -1. So, just go to the
given f(x) and substitute -1 for every x. 
.
Starting with:
.
f(x) = 4x - 3</span>
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Suppose that each child born is equally likely to be a boy or a girl. Consider a family with exactly three children. Let BBG ind
Gemiola [76]

Answer:

(a)

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

(b)

i.

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

ii.

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

iii.

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

Children = 3

B = Boys

G = Girls

Solving (a): List all possible elements using set-roster notation.

The possible elements are:

S = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, GBB, BBG, BGB, BGG, BBB\}

And the number of elements are:

n(S) = 8

Solving (bi) Exactly 1 girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

1\ girl = \{GBB, BBG, BGB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(1\ girl) = 3

The probability is calculated as;

P(1\ girl) = \frac{n(1\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(1\ girl) = \frac{3}{8}

P(1\ girl) = 0.375

Solving (bi) At least 2 are girls

From the list of possible elements, we have:

Atleast\ 2 \ girls = \{GGG, GGB, GBG, BGG\}

And the number of the list is;

n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 4

The probability is calculated as;

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{n(Atleast\ 2 \ girls)}{n(S)}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = \frac{4}{8}

P(Atleast\ 2 \ girls) = 0.5

Solving (biii) No girl

From the list of possible elements, we have:

No\ girl = \{BBB\}

And the number of the list is;

n(No\ girl) = 1

The probability is calculated as;

P(No\ girl) = \frac{n(No\ girl)}{n(S)}

P(No\ girl) = \frac{1}{8}

P(No\ girl) = 0.125

7 0
3 years ago
For the following set of 20 numbers:
patriot [66]

Answer:

I cannot answer all of this, so I will only answer what I can:

Q1: 13

Q3: 22.5

IQR: 13.5

IQR(1.5): 20.25

Q3 + IQR(1.5) = 43

Q1 - IQR(1.5) = -7.25

I don't know if my calculations are all right but I hope this helps! :)

4 0
3 years ago
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ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

It was on the unit test review for edge and the answer was that it diverges.

8 0
3 years ago
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yKpoI14uk [10]

Answer:

z=-60

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6z=-10

z=-10×6

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Mandarinka [93]
Rachel sold more because 9/10 is equal to 0.90 and 5/8 is equal to 0.625.
8 0
3 years ago
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