The break-even point is given when:
In another words, when the costs are equal to the revenue. If this happens, the profit will be equal to 0. From the graph, the profit is equal to 0 for 60,000 units.
Answer:
B
Can someone help me :(
2 answers:
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Answer:
you're not doing anything wrong
Step-by-step explanation:
In order for cos⁻¹ to be a function, its range must be restricted to [0, π]. The cosine value that is its argument is cos(-4π/3) = -1/2. You have properly identified cos⁻¹(-1/2) to be 2π/3.
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Cos and cos⁻¹ are conceptually inverse functions. Hence, conceptually, cos⁻¹(cos(x)) = x, regardless of the value of x. The expected answer here may be -4π/3.
As we discussed above, that would be incorrect. Cos⁻¹ cannot produce output values in the range [-π, -2π] unless it is specifically defined to do so. That would be an unusual definition of cos⁻¹. Nothing in the problem statement suggests anything other than the usual definition of cos⁻¹ applies.
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This is a good one to discuss with your teacher.
Short answer: you don't.
The linear term in the numerator of the integral means the form shown is not applicable. Rather, you perform the integration using partial fraction expansion.
The integral is ...
... (1/35)ln|5x-1| +(6/35)ln|5x+13| +C
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If the numerator of your integral were a constant, then the fractions multiplying the separate partial fraction integrals would have the same magnitude and opposite signs. You would end with the difference of logarithms, which could be expressed as the log of a ratio as shown in your problem statement.