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son4ous [18]
3 years ago
7

Assume that the plaintiff was 60 percent responsible for his own injuries. He would be able to recover the 40 percent of his inj

uries caused by the negligent defendant if the state that hears the case follows the doctrine of _________ negligence.a. Contributory b. Modified comparative faultc. Pure comparative fault d. Situs
Business
1 answer:
ivolga24 [154]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is the option C: Pure comparative fault.

Explanation:

To begin with, Comparative Negligence is an approach of the Contributory Negligence that is adopted nowadays by most of the states and that focuses in the amount of fault of each party when it comes to determines who's negligence was the one that caused the injuries. Moreover, this type of approach has two other more different approaches, that are pure comparative and modified comparative.

To continue,<em> ''</em><u><em>pure comparative negligence''</em></u> allows parties to collect for damages even when they are more than 50 percent responsible for the injury, however the amount of damages is limited by the party's actual degree of fault. Meanwhile the modifed comparative negligence only recognizes the recover of the damages when they are less than the 50 percent responsible of the injury. That is why if the state that hears the case follows the doctrine of the pure comparative negligence then the plaintiff will be able to recover the 40 percent of the injuries by the negligent defendant, even thought if he was 60 percent responsible.

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Answer:

C) Avoiding the risk

type of risk management option is being practiced.

Explanation:

Risk management is the method of recognizing, evaluating, and managing threats to an organization's resources and incomes. These signals, or uncertainties, could originate from a wide category of causes, including financial contingency, legal responsibilities, strategic administration mistakes, disasters, and natural disasters.

7 0
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If logan said he won the fight.<br> KSI fans:lets check his monthly spotify listeners
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3 years ago
g Other things the same, if the exchange rate changes from 6 Chinese yuan per dollar to 7 Chinese yuan per dollar, then the doll
MrMuchimi

Answer:

appreciates and buys more Chinese goods

Explanation:

Nominal exchange rate is the rate at which one unit of currency can be exchanged for another unit of currency.

If exchange rate is 1 dollar for 6 Chinese yuan , it means that 1 dollar would buy 6 Chinese yuan.

If exchange rate now becomes 1 dollar for 7 Chinese yuan , it means that 1 dollar would buy 7 Chinese yuan.

One dollar is now buying more Chinese yaun (7>6). It means that the dollar has appreciated and the Yaun has depreciated.

Currency appreciation is when the a currency increases in value.

As a result the dollar would buy more Chinese goods.

I hope my answer helps you

5 0
3 years ago
A financial advisor has heard from a relative of nr industries inc.'s ceo that the company is planning to shut down its operatio
kolezko [41]

This would be a case of insider trading, meaning that the trader (the financial advisor) has information that is not public that will affect the future performance of the company. If the advisor acts on this early information and profits, then this could be considered illegal.

3 0
3 years ago
For each of the unrelated transactions described below, present the entries required to record each transaction.
Mars2501 [29]

Answer:

Journal Entry

Explanation:

The Journal Entry is shown below:-

1. Cash Dr,                                                $19,618,250

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $606,750

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000

(Being Bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

Cash = ($20,225,000 × (97 ÷ 100)

=  $19,618,250

So, the bonds has been issued a discount. The par value of the bonds is 100.

2. Cash Dr,                                                $19,416,000

Discount on bonds payable Dr,               $1,820,250

          To Bonds payable                                           $20,225,000  

          To Paid in capital share warrants                   $1,011,250

(Being bonds issued is recorded)

Working Note:-

The Value of bonds issued at a discount

So, value of bonds = ($20,225,000 × ($96 ÷ $100)

= $19,416,000

Now, Value of warrants = ($20,225,000 ÷ 100) × $5

= $1,011,250

Total value of bonds including warrants = Value of bonds + Value of warrants

= $19,416,000 + $1,011,250

= $21,236,250

3. Debt conversion expense Dr,      $78,300

Bonds payable Dr,                             $10,342,000

          To discount payable                            $58,600

           To common stock                               $1,034,200

           To paid in capital in excess

            of common stock                                $9,249,200

           To cash                                                  $78,300

(Being debt conversion is recorded)

6 0
3 years ago
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