3 years ago

Is the mean value theorem for integrals the same as the mean value thoerem for derivatives?

1 answer:

3 0

Yes. The two theorems are equivalent statements given that the fundamental theorem of calculus is true.

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jok3333 [9.3K]

It should be -43 correct me if I’m wrong

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serious [3.7K]

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alekssr [168]

Answer:

B. 3(2^x)

Step-by-step explanation:

3(2^x) is the only function that yielded the given outputs when the inputs were plugged in.

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kirill [66]

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Komok [63]

$\bf \begin{cases}
(-2x^2)\\
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3 years ago