Is the mean value theorem for integrals the same as the mean value thoerem for derivatives?
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The area of the continent of Susan America which is 6,888,000 square miles can be written as 688*.
Given that the area of the continent of Susan America be 6888000 square miles.
We are required to express the area in the multiplication form by using the place values.
Area is basically quantity that expresses the extent of a region on the plane or on a curved surface.
Multiplication is basically finding the number which is product of two numbers.
6888000 can be written as 6888* which can be found out by the cube of 10 and multiply that by 6888.
Hence the area of the continent of Susan America which is 6,888,000 square miles can be written as 6888*.
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