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asambeis [7]
4 years ago
15

Fleming Company has the following cumulative taxable temporary differences: 12/31/18 12/31/17 $1,600,000 $2,250,000 The tax rate

enacted for 2018 is 40%, while the tax rate enacted for future years is 30%. Taxable income for 2018 is $4,000,000 and there are no permanent differences. Fleming's pretax financial income for 2018 is:
Business
1 answer:
jeyben [28]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Pretax financial income is $3,350,000.00

Explanation:

Fleming's pretax financial income is the taxable income for 2018 plus the increase in cumulative taxable temporary difference in 2018.

Taxable income is $4,000,000

Difference in cumulative  taxable difference=$1,600,000-$2,250,000

                                                                        =-$650,000

pretax  financial income=$4,000,000+(-$650,000)

                                                    =$4,000,000-$650,000

                                                    =$ 3,350,000.00  

The pretax financial income for year 2018 is  $3,350,000.00  

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lesya692 [45]

Answer:

Yes braniest

Explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Which of the following government
tankabanditka [31]
C. bonds

Hope this helps
5 0
2 years ago
Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
Tanek Corp.’s sales slumped badly in 2017. For the first time in its history, it operated at a loss. The company’s income statem
Levart [38]

Answer:

a) Break-even point in dollar for 2017

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution Margin/Sales

C.M Ratio = (Sales - Variable Cost)/Sales

C.M Ratio = $(2,500,000-1,750,000)/2,500,000

C.M Ratio = 0.30 or 30%

Break-even point in dollars = Fixed expense/C.M Ratio

B-E point ($) = $850,000/0.30

= $2,833,333.33

<u>Alternative 1</u>

<em>Sales Price per unit after increasing 20%,</em>

Sales Price = ($5*0.2) + $5 = $6

Total Sales ($) = (Sales Price x Sales Units)

Total Sales ($) = ($6*500,000) =$3,000,000

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution Margin/Sales

C.M Ratio = ($3,000,000- $1,750,000)/$3,000,000

C.M Ratio = 0.42 or 42%

Break-even point in dollars = Fixed expense/C.M Ratio

B-E point ($) = $850,000/0.42

= $2,023,809.52

<u>Alternative 2</u>

<em>Commission</em> = $2,500,000*5% = $125,000

Change in fixed annual salaries = $150,000-$60,000 = $90,000

Total fixed costs after deducting the changes in fixed salaries = $850,000-$90,000 = $760,000

Contribution margin ratio = Contribution Margin/Sales

C.M Ratio = (Sales - Variable Cost - Commission on sales)/Sales

C.M Ratio = ($2,500,000-$1,750,000-$125,000)/$2,500,000

C.M Ratio = 0.25 or 25%

Explanation:

Sales = $2,500,000

Sales Unit = $2,500,000/500,000 = $5

Variable Cost = 1,750,000

Fixed costs = $850,000

7 0
4 years ago
Baker's Supply imposes a payback cutoff of 3.5 years for its international investment projects. If the company has the following
sweet-ann [11.9K]

Answer:

Both projects fall within the acceptable payback period, so, both projects can be accepted.

Explanation:

Cash payback period measures how long it takes for the amount invested in a project to be recovered from the cumulative cash flows.

Pay back period For project A:

Amount invested in the project = −$ 62,000

Amount recovered in year 1 = −$ 62,000 + 7,100 = $-54,900

Amount recovered in year 2 = $-54,900 + 9,800 = $-45,100

Amount recovered in year 3 = $-45,100 + 28,700 = $-16,400

Amount recovered in year 4 = $-16,400 + 45,900 = $29,500

The amount is recovered In 3 years + 16400 / 45900 = 3.36 years

Cash payback period for project B:

Amount invested in the project = −$ 26,000

Amount recovered in year 1 = −$ 26,000 + 15,600 = $-10,400

Amount recovered in year 2 = $-10,400 + 8,400 = $-2000

Amount recovered in year 3 = $-2000 + 1,900 = $-100

Amount recovered in year 4 = $-100 + 1,100 = $1000

The amount invested is recovered In 3 years + 100/1,100 = 3.09 years.

Both projects fall within the acceptable payback period, so, both projects can be accepted.

I hope my answer helps you

7 0
3 years ago
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