Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
There are no given values, therefore we can't determine a definite answer. However, we are able to simplify the expression.
As we all know that any variable or number to the power of 0 is equal to 1. This means that
.
We also know that a negative power can bring the variable down and make it a fraction. This means that 
Now that we got these two sorted we are able to write it in a simplified form.
Answer: 
The remaining money will be $62. 65 billion
<h3>What will be the remaining fund in FDIC?</h3>
Given amount =$67. 8 billion
Amount used to cover several failed banks = 7.6% of the total amount
So the amount used to cover several failed banks= 

So the remaining amount = 
Thus the remaining money will be $62. 65 billion
To know more about percentage follow
brainly.com/question/24304697
Answer:
3454
Step-by-step explanation:
÷÷1/2=××/×/2223=×=×=÷
22÷3××÷÷
2÷=1=×+=××/
×$÷×=×2
2÷2÷/3=×
it would be 9.93300
so 3 decimal places because the zeros don't count
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
To understand the situations we must do a Venn diagram:
The total of people asked is 3400. Then,
a) For People who enjoyed vanilla but not chocolate or mint, seeing the diagram of Venn, we can deduce the equations:

b) For people who did not enjoy chocolate, vanilla or mint: