"1 indicating a coupon and all other outcomes indicating no coupon"
Probability is (number of successful outcomes) / (number of possible outcomes)
Theoretical Probability of rolling a 1: 1/8
Experimental Probability of using coupons: 4/48 = 1/12
So, the experimental probability of a customer using a coupon (that is, 1/12) is smaller than the theoretical probability of rolling a 1 (that is, 1/8).
Answer:
semoga jawapan ini dapat membantu
The answer is B because you multiply 14 days (2 weeks) to 5 which is 70 then you add the other 22cm and that's how you would end up with 92cm
What graph? We can’t solve if we don’t have a graph.
Hello!
Your answer would be 6
Than basically means switching the numbers
So basically if you were to multiply 6 x 6 (6 times less than)
You would get 36. Then subtract.
42 - 36 = 6, which is your answer.
I hope this helps!
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