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alexandr1967 [171]
3 years ago
10

In the long run, assuming that the owner of a firm in a competitive industry has positive opportunity costs, she a. should exit

the industry unless her economic profits are positive. b. will earn zero accounting profits but positive economic profits. c. will earn zero economic profits but positive accounting profits. d. should ignore opportunity costs because they are a type of sunk cost that disappears in the long run
Business
2 answers:
Alex3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C) will earn zero economic profits but positive accounting profits.

Explanation:

In economics, the cost and profit don't mean the same as in accounting, e.g. the price of a product ≠ the cost of buying the product, and net income ≠ profit.

When a supplier has positive economic profits, it means that something is not working well. Economic profit = accounting profit - opportunity costs.

In a competitive industry, accounting income is maximized when marginal revenue (MR) = marginal cost (MC), and at that point the opportunity costs = accounting income. So in order to maximize accounting income, economic profit = 0.

The opportunity costs of an industry are the costs incurred (or benefits lost) from choosing one activity or investment over another alternative one. If you are producing wooden toys and you could earn more money by producing furniture, then you should produce furniture instead. A firm in a competitive industry must produce an output level that matches the income they could be earning by producing something else, or else they are losing money.

So in this case, the firm is not producing at its optimal production level.

icang [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

 c. will earn zero economic profits but positive accounting profits.

Explanation:

In a competitive industry, there are many buyers and sellers of homogenous goods and services. There are also low barriers to entry and exit of firms. In the short run, if a firm is earning economic profit, new firms enter into the industry and drive economic profit to zero. Thus, in the long run, a firm only earns accounting profit.

Accounting profit is total revenue less total cost or explicit cost.

Economic profit is accounting profit less implicit cost or opportunity cost.

I hope my answer helps you

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An alternative to using a letter of credit is export credit insurance. What are the advantages and disadvantages of using export
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Read the explanation below.

Explanation:

A. Luxury yatch: Not a lot of people buy Yactchs, but a lot of businesses are capable of making them. So more or less the buyer is in position to dictate terms. And asking the buyer to open a letter of credit may result in the loss of sale.

But to protect against the risk of losing payment, the seller can opt for export credit insurance. Here on advantage of export credit insurance is the exporter is more likely to make the sale in a competitive market such as this. If there is a default, the insurance should cushion the blow. However, Canada and California are not known for opaque or radically different legal systems, are not far away, and do not have linguistic or other barriers. In the event of default, the yatch is likely to be returned.

b. Machine tools. Again, one advantage is that the new yorker exporter is more likely to make the sale. The exporter's position however is strong due to the fact not lot of people make machine tools as the are hard to make and have a higher fixed costs.

Thus, letter credit is the most viable option in this case.

3 0
3 years ago
Suppose that there are many stocks in the security market and that the characteristics of stocks A and B are given as follows: S
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

0.135 or 13.5%

Explanation:

Given in the question are the following:

ERA = Expected return of Stock A = 12% = 0.12

ERB = Expected return of Stock B = 19% = 0.19

SDA = Standard deviation of Stock A = 3% = 0.03

SDB = Standard deviation of Stock B = 9% = 0.09

CAB = Correlation between A and B = -1

The correlation of -1 between Stock A and Stock B indicates that there a perfect negative correlation between the two stocks. Therefore, we can create a risk-free portfolio which its rate of return will be the risk-free rate in equilibrium.  

If we let wA denotes the proportion of investment in Stock A, and let wB denotes the proportion of investment in Stock B, the proportion of this portfolio can be obtained by setting its standard deviation equal to zero. Since there is a perfect negative correlation, the standard deviation of this portfolio (SDP) can be given as follows:

Absolute value [(wA × SDA) – (wB × SDB)] = SDP …………………………………….. (1)

Note that wB = (1 – wA) since the sum of the weight must be equal to 1.

Substituting all the relevant values into equation and set SDP = 0, we have  

[(0.03 × wA) − (0.11 × (1 - wA))] = 0

0.03wA – 0.11 + 0.11wA = 0

0.03wA + 0.11wA = 0.11

0.14wA = 0.11

wA = 0.11 ÷ 0.14 = 0.785714285714286

Since wB = 1 –wA, therefore:

wB = 1 - 0.785714285714286 = 0.214285714285714

The expected rate of return of the portfolio (ERP) can be estimated as follows:

ERP = (wA × ERA) + (wB × ERB)  ................................. (2)

Substituting all the relevant values into equation (2), we have:

ERP = (0.785714285714286 × 0.12) + (0.214285714285714 × 0.19)  

       = 0.0942857142857143 + 0.0407142857142857

ERP = 0.135 or 13.5%

Therefore, the value of the risk-free rate must be 13.5%.

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