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Gennadij [26K]
3 years ago
10

Slope-intercept from two points

Mathematics
1 answer:
neonofarm [45]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

y=1/2x - 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The y-intercept is -2 and the slope of the line is 1/2. You can find the slope by using the rise over run method, which is the change in y over the change in x. In the points, x changed by +2, and y by +1, which is 1/2. Substitute that into the formula y=mx + b using one of the points to find the y-intercept, or b. You could use -4 = 1/2(-4) + b, solve for b, and you would get -2.

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9. A computer chip manufacturer knows that 72% of the chips produced are defective.
adoni [48]

The probability that exactly 800 chips are acceptable is less than 0.000001

<h3>How to determine the probability?</h3>

The given parameters are:

  • Sample, n = 3000
  • Percentage acceptable, p = 72%
  • Acceptable chips, x = 800

The binomial probability is represented as:

P(x) = ^nC_x * p^x * (1- p)^{n - x}

So, we have:

P(300) = ^{3000}C_{800} * (72\%)^{800} * (1- 72\%)^{3000 - 800}

The data values are large.

So, we use a statistical calculator to evaluate the expression

Using the calculator, we have:

P(300) < 0.000001

Hence, the probability that exactly 800 chips are acceptable is very small i.e. less than 0.000001

Read more about probability at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

#SPJ1

5 0
2 years ago
Help me please will give brainliest
kolezko [41]

C. 6

would be the answer

8 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Look at the picture and let me know the answer please
Inga [223]
X=32 because both equations are equal to 180 degrees (3x+22°+x+30°=180) just solve that equation and you’ll get your answer
7 0
2 years ago
Pleaseeeee I’m so close to passing math
Fynjy0 [20]

Answer:

5 cents each

Step-by-step explanation:

1.00 $ is equal to 100 pennies, so 100 ÷ 20 is 5, to check 5 cents times 20 is 100 cents or 1.00 $

5 0
3 years ago
Suppose N has a geometric distribution with parameter p. Derive a closed-form expression for E(N | N &lt;= k), k = 1,2,... Check
vfiekz [6]

Answer:

P(X= k) = (1-p)^k-1.p

Step-by-step explanation:

Given that the number of trials is

N < = k, the geometric distribution gives the probability that there are k-1 trials that result in failure(F) before the success(S) at the kth trials.

Given p = success,

1 - p = failure

Hence the distribution is described as: Pr ( FFFF.....FS)

Pr(X= k) = (1-p)(1-p)(1-p)....(1-p)p

Pr((X=k) = (1 - p)^ (k-1) .p

Since N<=k

Pr (X =k) = p(1-p)^k-1, k= 1,2,...k

0, elsewhere

If the probability is defined for Y, the number of failure before a success

Pr (Y= k) = p(1-p)^y......k= 0,1,2,3

0, elsewhere.

Given p= 0.2, k= 3,

P(X= 3) =( 0.2) × (1 - 0.2)²

P(X=3) = 0.128

3 0
3 years ago
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