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Lubov Fominskaja [6]
3 years ago
12

SEC Rule 10b-18 allows an issuer to buy its shares in the open market:________.A. at any price that is reasonably related to the

current marketB. at the highest independent bid or the last reported sale price, whichever is higherC. at the lowest independent offer or the last reported sale price, whichever is lowerD. under no circumstances, since this is considered to be market manipulation
Business
1 answer:
Mice21 [21]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

B. at the highest independent bid or the last reported sale price, whichever is higher

Explanation:

SEC Rule 10b-18 was issued to create a safe harbor that reduces a company's possible legal liabilities related to repurchasing their own stock. Companies can decide to follow it or not, but if they follow it, they must comply with specific requirements that depend on the company's size and trading activities. Even if companies follow all the requirements of this "safe harbor", all legal liabilities are not eliminated, instead some specific provisions will not be considered to have been violated by the company.

The conditions related to this rule  include

  • Manner of purchase conditions
  • Timing conditions
  • Price conditions
  • Volume conditions
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Prior to liquidating their partnership, Pepper and Reynell had capital accounts of $13,000 and $49,000, respectively. The partne
brilliants [131]

Answer:

Explanation:

Based on the information that has been given in the question, the following answer can be provided

a. Determine the amount of Pepper's deficiency.

First, we need to calculate the loss that was recognized. This will be:

= ($13,000 + $49,000) - $24,000

= $62,000 - $24,000

= $38,000

Pepper's share of the loss will then be:

= $38,000/2

= $19,000

Pepper's deficiency will now be his contribution minus the loss incurred. This will be:

= $19,000 - $13,000

= $6,000

Deficiency of $6000

b. Determine the amount distributed to Reynell, assuming Pepper is unable to satisfy the deficiency.

This will be:

= $49,000 - $19000 - $6,000

= $49,000 - $25,000

= $24,000

6 0
3 years ago
Kasey changes jobs on a regular basis. She does this to secure better career growth opportunities and to decrease boredom. Kasey
topjm [15]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": job hopping.

Explanation:

Job hopping refers to the act by which employees change from jobs frequently to avoid the boredom of working in the same place during long periods. Typically, this practice is repeated every one or two years and could be exercised when better job opportunities arise in the way.

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the following tools is an example of monetary policy?
loris [4]

Answer:

Explanation:

B C and D have become tools that have been tried.

Deficit spending is a budget/government policy. Its use should be very limited.

Same with Increased Government Spending. FDR was the master at controlled government spending.

Reducing income taxes is another government policy.

So only A is an example of monetary policy. This is a regulation imposed on the Banks by the Federal Reserve.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Indicate which of the following statements is true. a. Public transportation may be covered by an employer-provided spending acc
lukranit [14]

Answer:

B.Dependent care plans can only be used to cover the costs of caring for a dependent child

Explanation:

Dependent Care  with the high cost of child care these days a  Dependent Care Account makes it easy to save on taxes.  

5 0
3 years ago
First Bank offers personal loans at 7.7 percent compounded monthly. Second Bank offers similar loans at 7.4percent compounded da
Korolek [52]

Answer:

The First Bank loan has an effective rate of 7.98 percent.

Explanation:

we calcualte the effective rate for both loand and check which statement is correct.

<u>First bank:</u>

(1+\frac{0.077}{12} )^{12} = 1 + r_e

(1+\frac{0.077}{12} )^{12} - 1 = r_e

     1.07977643  - 1 = 0.07977 = 7.98%

<u>Second bank:</u>

(1+\frac{0.074}{365} )^{365} = 1 + r_e

(1+\frac{0.077}{365} )^{365} - 1 = r_e

     1.076798729   - 1 = 0.076798729  = 7.68%

Notice tthis isthe effective rate not the annual percentage rate.

So only the statement abour the first bank effectibe rate is true.

7 0
3 years ago
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