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attashe74 [19]
4 years ago
5

If real gdp per capita grows at a rate of 5 percent per year consistently over time, how many years will it take for it to doubl

e in size?
Business
1 answer:
stepladder [879]4 years ago
4 0
3 is the answer to your question!!

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When a business cycle enters a trough of a recession or depression, the federal government can use _______ and ________ to offse
Korolek [52]

Answer: Monetary and fiscal policies

Explanation: Monetary and fiscal policies are two tools of the governments all over the world to stabilize economy in times of depression or recession.

These two can be explained as follows :-

1. Monetary policy refers to the decisions taken by the govt. to stabilize economy by adjusting the interest rates on short term borrowings or by changing the supply of money in the economy as per the need.

2. Whereas in fiscal policy federal govt. use tax collection and expenditure control for coping with depression or recession.

7 0
4 years ago
When buyers refuse to pay a product’s stated price or when improvements in other items or fashion changes reduce the appeal of t
hoa [83]
Reduction in the price. If they do not reduce the price, then people will not buy the product, and they will be left with too many of the same products. 
4 0
3 years ago
The investment a company makes in training employees to perform their duties and redesigning products and processes to improve t
Andre45 [30]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Prevention Cost is the cost which is incurred to avoid the loss due to defects in the products manufactured, here the cost incurred is as follows:

Training employees that is the benefit from training will be reducing cost and improving quality of the product, therefore, it will be considered as prevention costs.

Further cost incurred for redesigning products and processes will improve the quality of the product and the process therefore this cost can also be considered as prevention costs.

Final Answer

The above statement is true.

4 0
3 years ago
Morgan Company reported the following information for the year ended December 31, 2015: Net income $ 600,000 Preferred dividends
Nataly_w [17]

Answer:

Morgan’s earnings per share for 2015 is $6

Explanation:

To compute the earning per share, we have to use the formula which is shown below:

Earning per share = (Net income - declaration of preference dividend) ÷ (Average common shares outstanding)

= ($600,000 - $60,000) ÷ (90,000 outstanding shares)

= $6

Common dividends declared is not considered. Hence, it is not taken in the computation part.

6 0
4 years ago
Why do less developed countries have a higher population growth?
Ede4ka [16]
Because there is less abortion
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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