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kondaur [170]
3 years ago
10

Why is investing in the stock market riskier than saving cash or bond investments? Describe one way to mitigate, or lessen, that

risk.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Vesnalui [34]3 years ago
3 0

If the company performs badly, or there's a perception it does so, then the stock's value will go down and you'll lose money. The only way to earn money from stocks is if the company is able to be innovative and survive the competition. The worst case scenario is that you lose all your money if the company goes bankrupt.

To reduce the risk, you should diversify your investments so that you invest in multiple companies along multiple sectors of the economy. This spreads out the risk so that if one company fails, then its unlikely they all fail (assuming there isn't some catastrophic event in the market). Alternatively, you can invest with mutual funds or index funds to let other people/entities invest your money with a range of diverse companies.

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The Social Security Administration increased the taxable wage base from $106,800 to $110,100. The 6.2% tax rate is unchanged. Jo
Rzqust [24]

Answer:

The Social Security Administration increased the taxable wage base from $106,800 to $110,100.

A:

The percent increase in the base =

\frac{110100-106800}{106800}\times100=3.09%

B:

Previous year tax = 0.062\times106800=6621.60 dollars

This year tax = 0.062\times110100=6826.20 dollars

Increase in tax = 6826.20-6621.60=204.60 dollars

Hence, Joe’s increase in Social Security tax for the new year is $204.60.

5 0
2 years ago
What are the equations
I am Lyosha [343]

Answer:

(-3,4)

(-1,4)

(-3,7)

Step-by-step explanation:

(1,1) → (1-4, 1+3) → (-3,4)

(3,1) → (3-4, 1+3) → (-1,4)

(1,4) → (1-4, 4+3) → (-3,7)

8 0
2 years ago
A circle has a circumference of 42 in.what is the area of the circle
Solnce55 [7]

Answer:

140.37 in²

Step-by-step explanation:

C = 2πr

42 = 2πr

21 = πr

r = 21/π

A = πr²

A = π × (21/π)²

≈ 140.37 in²

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please please please help me show your work (10 points!!)
Shkiper50 [21]

Answer:

C or 8

Step-by-step explanation:

Once again, first you ant to simplify the equation before putting in the numbers.  So the simplified equation is mh + mp -p/h +m. Then you put the numbers in. mh is actually 3(-1), which is -3. mp is really 3*4, which is 12. p/h is 4/-1, which is -4, and then you add m. So when you put the numbers is it ends up as -3 + 12 - 4 +3, which simplified is 8, or C

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Assume there are 365 days in a year.
Dahasolnce [82]
The chance of student 1's birthday being individual is 365/365 or 100%.
Then the chance of student 2's birthday being different is 364/365.
Then it's narrowed down to 363/365 for student 3 and so on until you get all 10 students.
If you multiply all these values together, the probability would come out at around 0.88305182223 or 0.88.

To get all the same birthday you'd have to the chance of one birthday, 1/365 and multiply this by itself 10 times. This will produce a very tiny number. In standard form this would be 2.3827x10'-26 or in normal terms: 0.23827109210000000000000000, so very small.
4 0
3 years ago
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