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Alinara [238K]
3 years ago
12

I NEED HELP ASAP! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST!!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Mariulka [41]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

because

if power of any no. is zero

the value will be one

here

power is zero

so

value will be 1

plzzzz...

mark it as a brilliant answer

Burka [1]3 years ago
5 0
I don't see a mistake. You solve in parentheses first, then you solve exponents. If the exponent is 0 in this context, the answer would be 0.
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Algebra 2 question need help.​
MrMuchimi

Answer: Choice C

h(x) = -x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 4x + 5

===========================================

Explanation:

When reflecting the function f(x) over the y axis, we replace every x with -x and simplify like so

f(x) = -x^4 - 2x^3 + 3x^2 - 4x + 5

f(-x) = -(-x)^4 - 2(-x)^3 + 3(-x)^2 - 4(-x) + 5

f(-x) = -x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 4x + 5

h(x) = -x^4 + 2x^3 + 3x^2 + 4x + 5

Note the sign changes that occur for the terms that have odd exponents (the terms -2x^3 and -4x become +2x^3 and +4x); while the even exponent terms keep the same sign.

The reason why we replace every x with -x is because of the examples mentioned below

-----------

Examples:

The point (1,2) moves to (-1,2) after a y axis reflection

Similarly, (-5,7) moves to (5,7) after a y axis reflection.

As you can see, the y coordinate stays the same but the x coordinate flips in sign from negative to positive or vice versa. This is the direct reason for the replacement of every x with -x.

4 0
3 years ago
What is the coefficient in the expression 40a-61=17
zepelin [54]

Answer:

a = 1.95

Step-by-step explanation:

40a - 61 = 17

40a - 61 + 61 = 17 + 61

40a = 78

40a / 40 = 78 / 40

a = 1.95

5 0
3 years ago
Ill give brainliest, please
Flura [38]

Answer:

1st One goes to the third one

2nd one goes to the 1st one

3rd one goes to the 4th one

and the 4th one goes to the 2nd one

7 0
3 years ago
a retail owner can but a certain clock at an average price of $53 per clock and sell them for an average price of $84 per clock.
Butoxors [25]

Answer:

the answer is this

Step-by-step explanation:

To calculate the break-even point in units use the formula: Break-Even point (units) = Fixed Costs ÷ (Sales price per unit – Variable costs per unit) or in sales dollars using the formula: Break-Even point (sales dollars) = Fixed Costs ÷ Contribution Margin

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
HELP ME WITH MY MATH ASSIGNMENT, WILL GIVE ANYTHING, DUE TOMORROW! :(
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

Answer is 225.

We have to find the sum of 15 terms of the series

sigma 1 to 15 (2n-1)

This can be split as per summation terms as

sigma 2n - sigma 1

sigma 2n can again be simplified by taking 2 outside

sigma 2n= 2 times sum of natural numbers of 1 to 15

= 2(15)(16)/2= 240

sigma 1= 1+1+...15 times= 15

Hence final answer is

= 2 times sigma n - (n) = 240-15 = 225.

Step-by-step explanation:


4 0
3 years ago
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