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Y_Kistochka [10]
3 years ago
8

7) The best classification for 3i + 4i is:

Mathematics
2 answers:
adell [148]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

The i's next to each number indicate that they are imaginary

NISA [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

c. Imaginary Number

Step-by-step explanation:

3i+4i = 7i

This is an imaginary number

You might be interested in
100 points
Snezhnost [94]

Answer: 28\sqrt 3

Step-by-step explanation:

8 x 14 x 21 = 2352, so:

√8⋅√14⋅√21 = √2352

√2352 in simplest form is 28√3

I hope this helps!

6 0
2 years ago
The bending of a bean varies directly as its mas. A beam is bent 20mm by a mass 0f 40kg. how much will the beam bend with a mass
Naddik [55]

Answer:

The beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?

Step-by-step explanation:

The first step in solving the problem of direct variation is setting up the relation mathematically.

We can do this as follows:

The bending of the beam varies directly as its mass.

20  \alpha  40kg

\alpha here is the symbol representing direct variation. To remove this and replace it with an equality sign, we have to introduce a constant of proportionality, k

20 = k \times 40

k = 20 /40 = 0.5

We can now use this to find the distance the beam will bend with a mass of 100kg?

This will be

Bending = 0.5 \times 100 =50mm

There fore, the beam will bend by 50 mm with a mass of 100kg?

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help!!! Will give brainliest
AlladinOne [14]

Answer:

option C

Step-by-step explanation:

option C is the correct answer of this question.

<em>plz </em><em>mark</em><em> my</em><em> answer</em><em> as</em><em> brainlist</em><em> plzzzz</em><em> vote</em><em> me</em><em>.</em>

<em>hope</em><em> this</em><em> will</em><em> be</em><em> helpful</em><em> to</em><em> you</em><em>.</em>

5 0
2 years ago
the ratio of pink marbles to white marbles and Tamera's bag is equal to 1:5 what percent of the bag contains pink marbles
harina [27]
Pink to White

1 to 5

1/5 = 0.2

Answer: 20%
5 0
3 years ago
Are shape I and shape II similar? If so, give the dilation that proves they are similar. If not, explain why the shapes are not
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

The answer is "They are similar".

Step-by-step explanation:

They were comparable in this respect because both aspect ratios of the top triangle are one square more. The top triangle is equal to the base triangles if you remove one square away from the height and width.

Otherwise, we can say that it forms all different. The dilation factor which translates that bottom left point of shape I to form II is 2. But this does not map the other shape I vertices onto form II. There's, therefore, no dilation in form I of maps on form II.

5 0
3 years ago
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