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kirill [66]
2 years ago
6

The radius of a spherical balloon is 4.5 inches.

Mathematics
2 answers:
nignag [31]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

Hello there! Your answer should be 381.51.

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the formula for volume: V = \frac{4}{3}\pi \r^{3} r^3

Now in order to solve you will first insert what you know. In this case, insert the radius, and pi:

= \frac{4}{3} \pi (4.5)^{3}

Remember, the radius is cubed so it will be 4.5 x 4.5 x 4.5

= 91.125

Now! You will be able to simply multiply cross. I personally multiply the 4 by my new radius and divide that by 3 like show:

= \frac{4}{3} \pi (91.125)\\\\= \frac{364.5}{3} \\\\

Your final answer should be:

= 381.51

Hope this was helpful! ^^

Natalka [10]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The volume of the balloon is 18.84 inches³

Step-by-step explanation:

* Lets talk about the sphere

- Its a solid

- It has surface area = 4πr²

- It has no lateral area

- It has no faces

- It has no vertices

- It has no edges

- Its volume = (4/3) π r³

* In our problem the balloon shaped a sphere

- Its radius = 4.5 inches

- The value of π = 3.14

* Lets calculate its volume

∵ The radius = 4.5 inches

∵ π = 3.14

∵ The volume = (4/3) π r³

* Substitute the values of r and π in the formula

∴ The volume = (4/3) × 3.14 × 4.5 = 18.84 inches³

* The volume of the balloon is 18.84 inches³

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Answer:

1. 40%

2. The theoretical probability is 3% greater than the experimental probability.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are informed that a number cube is rolled 20 times and the number 4 is rolled 8 times. The experimental probability of rolling a 4 is;

(the number of times a 4 was rolled)/(total number of rolls)

8/20 = 0.4

0.4*100 = 40%

The experimental probability of obtaining at least one tails, one or more tails, is represented in mathematical notation as;

P(HT or TH or TT)

The above events are mutually exclusive, thus;

P(HT or TH or TT) = P(HT) + P(TH) + P( TT)

                               = (22+34+16)/(28+22+34+16)  

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On the other hand, the theoretical probability of obtaining at least one tails,

P(HT or TH or TT) = 3/4

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This is because there is at least one tail in 3 out of 4 possible outcomes.

Therefore, it is true to say that the theoretical probability is 3% greater than the experimental probability.

6 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

The integers are (x, y) = (40, 8).

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

R = \left[\begin{array}{ccc}-3&-2\\1&-3\\\end{array}\right]

Step-by-step explanation:

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