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DENIUS [597]
3 years ago
12

You are comparing two investment options that each pay 6 percent interest, compounded annually. Both options will provide you wi

th $12,000 of income. Option A pays $2,000 the first year followed by two annual payments of $5,000 each. Option B pays three annual payments of $4,000 each. Which one of the following statements is correct given these two investment options? Assume a positive discount rate. Both options are of equal value since they both provide $12,000 of income. a. Option A has the higher future value at the end of year three.b. Option B has a higher present value at time zero.c. Option B is a perpetuity.d. Option A is an annuity.
Business
1 answer:
Nesterboy [21]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Answer choice b - Option B has a higher present value at time zero is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Option B has a higher present value at time zero is correct

as shown below:

At the end of three years, option A future value = 2000*(1.06)^2+5000*(1.06)^1+5000*(1.06)^0= $12,547

At the end of three years, option B future value = 4000*(1.06)^2+4000*(1.06)^1+4000*(1.06)^0=$12,734

From the calculation above, option B has higher future value, so the first option is wrong.

At time zero, option A present value = 2000/(1.06)^1+5000/(1.06)^2+5000/(1.06)^3= $10,535

At time zero, option B present value = 4000/(1.06)^1+4000/(1.06)^2+4000/(1.06)^3=$10,692

From the calculation above, option B has higher present value, so second option is correct.

The third option is wrong as Option B is not perpetuity as B has three years of life.

The fourth option is wrong as Option A is not annuity as cash flow, amounts is not equal, it varies on an annual basis.

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Dee's Fashions has a growth rate of 5.2 percent and is equally as risky as the market while its stock is currently selling for $
emmasim [6.3K]

Answer:

12.6%

Explanation:

Using the Capital Market Pricing Model (CAPM) to compute the expected rate of return on Dee's Fashion stock.

Expected rate of return = R_{f} +\beta (R_{m} -R_{f} )

Where R(f) = risk free rate of return, or market return less risk premium = 12.6% - 8.7% = 3.9%

\beta = the risk of the stock relative to the market risk. In this case, beta = 1, since the company is equally as risky as the market (as noted in the question)

R(m) = return of the stock market = 12.6%

Therefore, the expected rate of return on the stock

= 3.9% + 1 * (12.6% - 3.9%)

= 3.9% + 8.7%

= 12.6%.

The return is the same as the stock market return because the stock is equally as risky as the market.

5 0
4 years ago
The trial balance for Splish Brothers Inc. appears as follows: Splish Brothers Inc. Trial Balance December 31, 2022 Cash $340 Ac
STatiana [176]

Answer:

debit to Rent Expense for $171

Explanation:

The adjusting entry would be

Rent Expense  $171

          To Rent expenses payable $171

(Being Rent expense accounted is recorded)

Here the rent expense is debited as it increased the assets and credited the rent expense payable as it also increased the liabilities

Therefore the a option is correct

ANd, the rest of the options would be wrong

8 0
3 years ago
Simon lost $5,000 gambling this year on a trip to Las Vegas. In addition, he paid $2,000 to his broker for managing his $200,000
marusya05 [52]

Answer:

No amount is deductible.

Explanation:

In taxation, gambling losses are only tax deductible to the extent of winnings from the gambling. This implies that gambling losses is not deductible from other income. For a person to deduct gambling losses, he is required to itemize and report all his winnings from gambling as taxable income before deducting the gambling losses. Since no gambling winning is reported by Simon, the $5,000 gambling losses cannot be deducted.

Investment expenses such as a payment to a broker for managing investment have been eliminated and no more tax deductible since 2019.

Tax return fees are part of the miscellaneous fees under Schedule A of Form 1040, is no longer tax deductible because they have been eliminated for the period between 2018 and 2025 tax years.

Commuting expenses are never tax deductible when it has to do with a regular back and forth movement from home to place of employment. It is only deductible when it has to do with a regular movement from one place of employment to another place of employment when the tax payer has more than one job. Since there is no evidence that Simon has more than one job, the commuting expenses is not tax deductible.

Therefore, Simon has no amount that is deductible.

7 0
4 years ago
Based on the premise that, other things equal, countries would prefer a fixed exchange rate, which of the following statements i
astraxan [27]

Answer:

C) Fixed rates are inherently inflationary in that they require the country to follow loose monetary and fiscal policies.

Explanation:

The following are reasons why countries would prefer a fixed exchange rate:

1) Fixed rates provide stability in international prices for the conduct of trade.

2) Fixed exchange rate regimes necessitate that central banks maintain large quantities of international reserves for use in the occasional defense of the fixed rate.

3) Stable prices aid in the growth of international trade and lessen exchange rate risks for businesses.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A category of assets that typically has zero in the Free Assets column in a Statement of Affairs is:
Hatshy [7]

Answer:

Tools

Explanation:

The statement of affairs is a legal document that present the company assets and liabilities and it could be generated at the time when the bankruptcy is declared

Now the category of assets that contains zero in the column of free assets in the statement of affairs is tools

Therefore the same is to be considered

4 0
3 years ago
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