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pantera1 [17]
3 years ago
8

​Valley, Inc. has​ 9,000 shares of preferred stock outstanding. The preferred stock has a​ $90 par​ value, a​ 14% dividend​ rate

, and is noncumulative. If Valley has sufficient funds to pay​ dividends, what is the total amount of dividends that will be paid out to preferred​ stockholders?
Business
1 answer:
EastWind [94]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The dividends payout to preferred stockholders is $113,400 as shown below.

Explanation:

The total dividends payable to holders of preferred shares can be computed thus:

Preferred shares dividends=9000*$90*14%

Preferred shares dividends =$113,400

Preferred shareholders have prior claims to dividends ahead of ordinary shareholders,but after bondholders' interest payments have been settled.

The same way they also have precedence in the distribution of company's assets before ordinary shareholders upon the liquidation of the company.

The downside is that they cannot share in excess profits after payment of dividends as they are part-owners of the company unlike ordinary shareholders.

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Taxpayers have a choice of deducting the standard deduction or their itemized deductions. therefore, blank______ agi deductions
KonstantinChe [14]

Itemized deductions are thought to benefit more taxpayers because they can be claimed if the total is higher than the standard deduction.

You can deduct what you paid in real estate taxes, personal property taxes, state and local income or sales taxes, mortgage interest, and disaster losses when you itemize your deductions. You can also count charitable contributions and a portion of the money you spent for health and dental care.

If you itemize your taxes, do you get a bigger refund?

The standard deduction may be exceeded by itemized deductions. The more you may deduct, the less tax you'll owe, which is why some people itemize their deductions because the sum of their itemized deductions exceeds the basic deduction. There are numerous deductions that could be made.

To know more about  itemized deductions

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8 0
1 year ago
Helping others who need help on the job is important, regardless of the cost to me.
ella [17]

Answer:

yes because on day u might need help and they are gonna help you back go good job

Explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Cho's Performance Pizza is a small restaurant in Miami that sells gluten-free pizzas. Cho's very tiny kitchen has barely enough
Brut [27]

Answer: Variable ... Fixed

Explanation:

In the short run, Variable Inputs or costs are known as those which can be changed and their quantities can be varied. In this scenario, the employees that Cho's uses can be varied and so are the Variable Inputs.

Similarly, those costs that cann ot be changed or varied in the short run are rightly known as Fixed Inputs. Cho's Kitchen cannot take more than 3 ovens and also she has already signed a lease for them. These costs cannot be changed and so make the oven a Fixed Input.

It is worthy of note that in the long term, all Costs are considered Variable.

7 0
3 years ago
A machine can be purchased for $202,000 and used for five years, yielding the following net incomes. In projecting net incomes,
FinnZ [79.3K]

Answer:

2.36 years

Explanation:

Payback calculates the amount of time it takes to recover the amount invested in a project from it cumulative cash flows.

To derive cash flows from net income, depreciation expenses should be added to net income.

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2 / 5 = 0.4

Deprecation expense in year 1 = 0.4 x $202,000 = $80,800

Book value in year 2 = $202,000 - $80,800 = $121,200

Deprecation expense in year 2 = 0.4 x $121,200 = $48,480

Book value in year 3 = $121,200 - $48,480 = $72,720

Deprecation expense in year 3 = 0.4 x $72,720 = $29,088

Book value in year 4 = $72,720 - $29,088 = $43,632

Deprecation expense in year 4 = $43,632 x 0.4 = $17,452.80

Book value in year 5 = $43,632 x 0.4 - $17,452.80 = $26,179.20

Deprecation expense in year 5 = $26,179.20 x 0.4 = $10,471.68

Cash flow in year 1 = $18,000 +  $80,800 = $98,800

Cash flow in year 2 = $25,000 + $48,480 = $73,480

Cash flow in year 3 = $53,000  + $29,088 = $82,088

Cash flow in year 4 = $58,000  + $17,452.80 = $75,452.80

Cash flow in year 5 = $108,000 + $10,471.68 = $118,471.68

Please check the attached image for how the payback period was calculated

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Suppose your firm develops a new pharmaceutical product that may be used to reduce blood cholesterol levels, so the firm is the
Troyanec [42]

Answer:

The markup calculated as a result of information about the elasticity of demand

Explanation:

As a monopoly seller of pharmaceutical products the price set as markup would be above our marginal cost.

There are three facts about markup:

1. The Markup is not to be a price below marginal cost of the pharmaceutical product.

2. Markup is smaller when demand is more elastic. Remember if the price elasticity of demand is lower than 1, (negative) a rise in price causes an

increase in revenue for the seller.

Therefore having a -4 elasticity of demand could imply more profits for the firm.

5 0
3 years ago
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