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slamgirl [31]
3 years ago
10

Can someone help me with this

Mathematics
1 answer:
natta225 [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Actually, this is equal to 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello, please consider the following.

First of all, we assume x and y different from 0.

xy=4\\\\y=\dfrac{4}{x}\\\\x=\dfrac{4}{x}\\\\\text{So}\\\\y'(x)=\dfrac{-4}{x^2}\\\\y''(x)=\dfrac{-4*(-2)}{x^3}=\dfrac{8}{x^3}\\\\x''(y)=\dfrac{8}{y^2}\\\\\text{So, we can conclude}

\dfrac{d^2y}{dx^2}\cdot \dfrac{d^2x}{dy^2}=\dfrac{8}{x^3}\cdot\dfrac{8}{y^3}\\\\=\dfrac{64}{(xy)^3}\\\\\text{We replace xy by 4}\\\\=\dfrac{64}{4^3}\\\\=\dfrac{64}{64}\\\\=\large \boxed{\sf \bf \ 1 \ }

Thank you

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Answer:

The amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Calculation of present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday

The present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday can be calculated using the formula for calculating the present value of an ordinary annuity as follows:

PV60 = Q * ((1 - (1 / (1 + r))^n) / r) …………………………………. (1)

Where;

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = ?

Q = quarterly claim = P10,000

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters = number of years * Number of quarters in a year = 5 * 4 = 20

Substitute the values into equation (1), we have:

PV60 =  P10,000 * ((1 - (1 / (1 + 0.02))^20) / 0.02)

PV60 = P10,000 * 16.3514333445971

PV60 = P163,514.33  

Step 2: Calculation of one-time payment on his 40th birthday

The one-time payment can be calculated using the formula the following formula:

PV = PV60 / (1 + r)^n ........................ (2)

Where;

PV = Present value or One-time payment = ?

PV60 = present value on 3 months after his 60th birthday = P163,514.33

r = quarterly interest rate = annual interest rate / 4 = 8% / 4 = 0.08 / 4 = 0.02

n = number of quarters from 40th to 3 months after his 60th birthday = (number of years * Number of quarters in a year) + One quarter = (20 * 4) + 1 = 81

Substitute the values into equation (2), we have:

PV = P163,514.33 / (1 + 0.02)^81 = P32,880.77

Therefore, the amount of one-time payment should he make on his 40th birthday to pay off his pension plan is P32,880.77.

7 0
3 years ago
[Easy Question] Answer this with evidence of the answer that you provided with me!
monitta

Answer:

48

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There are other methods of solving this but I think this is the easiest way!

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2 years ago
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likoan [24]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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