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3 years ago

5. A pair of jeans costing

1 answer:

6 0

So $39.50 is the price when you are paying full price, which can be represented by 100%. If you’re paying 25% less, than you are only paying 75% of the original price. Simply multiply $39.50 by 75%(expresses as 0.75) to determine the sale price. 39.50(.75)=29.62 The closest value to that is $29.50, so D is the answer.

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Marcia has a licorice rope that is 28 inches long. She wants to cut it into 3,-inch pieces to share with friends. How many piece

diamong [38]

Answer:

9 pieces

Step-by-step explanation:

28 inches rope cut into 3-inch pieces

28/3 = 9 1/3

There is no matching answer choice, if given numbers are correct then the answer is 9 full pieces

---------

The close answer choice is 8
28/8 = 3 1/2 or 3.5
So if cut into 3.5 inch pieces then it is 8 full pieces
just in case it was typo 3 instead of 3.5

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Work out length of BC

Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

assume $13 = z \\ 8 =x \\ bc = y$

by phytagorean theorem

${y}^{2} + {x}^{2} = z^{2}$

$bc = y = \sqrt{ {z}^{2} - {x}^{2} } = \sqrt{169 - 64} = \sqrt{105}$

3 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

(1) Tom took a trip of 1,020 miles. He traveled by train at 55 miles an hour and the same number of hours by plane at 285 mph.

Maurinko [17]

<h3>Answer:</h3>

B) 6 hours

<h3>Step-by-step explanation:</h3>

Let h represent the total trip time. Then h/2 is the time spent traveling at each speed. The distance covered is ...

... distance = speed · time

The sum of the distances in each mode is the total distance.

... 1020 = 55·h/2 +285·h/2

... 2040 = h·(55+285) . . . . multiply by 2

... 2040/340 = h = 6 . . . . . . . divide by the coefficient of h

The trip took a total of 6 hours.

4 0

2 years ago

The Arizona Cardinals won ten games out

goldenfox [79]

Answer:

80 games

Step-by-step explanation:

10wins/16 games=50 wins/? games

10 times 5=50 so 16 times 5 =80

10.g=16.50

10/g=800/10

g=80 games

7 0

2 years ago

Consider a Poisson distribution with μ = 6.

bearhunter [10]

Answer:

a) $P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{x}}{(x)!}$

b) f(2) = 0.04462

c) f(1) = 0.01487

d) $P(X \geq 2) = 0.93803$

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of successes

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

In this question:

$\mu = 6$

a. Write the appropriate Poisson probability function.

Considering $\mu = 6$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{x}}{(x)!}$

b. Compute f (2).

This is P(X = 2). So

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.04462$

So f(2) = 0.04462

c. Compute f (1).

This is P(X = 1). So

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.01487$

So f(1) = 0.01487.

d. Compute P(x≥2)

This is:

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which:

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.00248$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.01487$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-6}*6^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.04462$

Then

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.00248 + 0.01487 + 0.04462 = 0.06197$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.06197 = 0.93803$

$P(X \geq 2) = 0.93803$

5 0

2 years ago