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LenaWriter [7]
3 years ago
13

During the current year, Esterhazy, Inc. estimated manufacturing overhead for the year to be $896,000. The company uses direct l

abor hours to apply manufacturing overhead to Work-in-Process. The budgeted direct labor hours for the current year totaled 80,000 hours and the actual hours worked were 82,000. The actual overhead incurred during the year was $924,000. What is the amount of overapplied or underapplied overhead?
Business
1 answer:
kvasek [131]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Overheads are over-applied by $5,600

Explanation:

Company's expected manufacturing overhead = $896,000

Budgeted labor hours = 80,000 hours

Rate per hour = $896,000/80,000 = $11.2 per labor hour

Actual overheads incurred = $924,000

Actual labor hours = 82,000

Actual rate per hour =$924,000/82,000 = $11.268

Actual overheads at budgeted rate for actual hours = 82,000 X $11.2 = $918,400

Since actual overheads are higher by $924,000 - $918,400 = $5,600

Overheads are over-applied by $5,600

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The management of Charlton Corporation is considering the purchase of a new machine costing $380,000. The company's desired rate
VikaD [51]

Answer:

d. 4 years

Explanation:

Cash payback period is the time on which the company receive from the investment the same amount of money investment

cash fows = investment

regardless of discount or interest rates or changes in the value of the equipment. It is just answerng:

I put 100,000 dollars in the project, when I get 100,000 dollars back ?

The usual formula will be:

\frac{investment}{cash \: flow} = payback

380,000/ 95,000 = 4 years

7 0
3 years ago
Fooling Company has a callable bond outstanding with a coupon of 12.2 percent, 25 years to maturity, call protection for the nex
sashaice [31]

Answer:<em>9.5354% or 9.6%</em>

Explanation:

<em>PMT = coupon (interest) payment = 12.2 % * $1,000 = $120</em>

<em>Let t = time left until bond is called = 10 years </em>

<em>Let F be the  face value = $ 1,100 ($ 1,000 + $ 100 (Call premium))</em>

<em>Let the Current bond price = 110 %  x 1,000 = $1,100</em>

<em>Now,</em>

<em>The bond price is = PMT x 1-( 1 + r )⁻t / r + F/(1 + r )t</em>

<em>Therefore,</em>

<em>1100 = 100 x 1 - (1 + r)⁻¹⁰/r + 1100/(1 + r)¹⁰</em>

<em>Using the trial and error method,</em>

<em>r= 9.5354%</em>

<em>Then the yield to call (YTC) = 9.5354</em>

9.5354%

5 0
3 years ago
FINANCIAL LITERACY <br> WILL MARK BRAINLIEST PLS HELP ASAP!!
gregori [183]

Answer:

i dk

Explanation:

tthanks for the points tho

5 0
3 years ago
Brodrick Company expects to produce 21,700 units for the year ending December 31. A flexible budget for 21,700 units of producti
statuscvo [17]

Answer:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc}&$Flexible Budget&$Actual&$Variance\\$Sales&548,000&500,000&48000U\\$Variable&-82,200&-113,700&31,500U\\$Contribution&465,800&386300&79,500U\\$Fixed Cost&-142,000&-134,000&8,000F\\$Income&323,800&252300&71,500U\\\end{array}\right]

Explanation:

Sales Price: 434,000 / 21,700 = 20

Variable cost: 65,100 / 21,700 =   3

fixed cost: 142,000

Values at 27,400 units:

sales:  27,400 units x $20 = 548,000

variable cost: 27,400 units x $3 = 82,200

Now, we compare with the actual result and calcualte the income

3 0
4 years ago
The Most recent financial statements for Moose Tours, Inc., appear below. Sales for 2016 are projected to grow by 20 percent. In
Aneli [31]

Answer:

$5,006.07

Explanation:

The external financing needed = Projected Increase in Assets - Increase in Liabilities - Increase in Retained Earnings

Projected Increase in Asset = Assets Value*Sales Growth Rate

Projected Increase in Assets = $364,720 * 20%

Projected Increase in Assets = $72,944

Increase in Liabilities = Liabilities * Sales Growth Rate

Increase in Liabilities = $69,600 * 20%

Increase in Liabilities = $13,920

<em>To calculate the Increase in Retained Earning, the below calculations are needed:</em>

a. Profit Margin Rate = Net Income / Sales * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 75,000 / 751,000 * 100

Profit Margin Rate = 9.99%

b. Dividend Payout Ratio = Dividend / Net Income * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 30,000 / 75,000 * 100

Dividend Payout Ratio = 0.4

Dividend Payout Ratio = 40%

Retention Rate = 1 - Dividend Payout Ratio

Retention Rate = 1 - 0.40

Retention Rate = 0.60

Retention Rate = 60%

c. Expected Sales = $751,000 * 1.20 = $901,200

So, the Increase in Retained Earning = Expected Sales * Profit Margin * Retention Rate = $901,200 *9.99% * 60% = $54,017.93

Therefore, External Fund Needed = $72,944 - $13,920 - $54,017.93 = $5,006.07

3 0
3 years ago
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