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3 years ago

Forty eight feet equals how many yards?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ainat [17]3 years ago

8 0

Answer: 16yards

Step-by-step explanation:

48feet equals how many yards

Remember

1yard equals 3feet

Let the unknown yard be x

1yard equals 3feet

xyard equals 48feet

Cross multiply

3×X=48×1

X=48/3

X=16

Therefore

16yards equals 48feet

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Step 3: 2x > 10 Step 4: x > 5 What property justifies the work between step 3 and step 4? A. division property of inequali

BigorU [14]

Answer:

A. Division property of inequality.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let be $2\cdot x > 10$ , we proceed to show the appropriate procedure to step 4:

1) $2\cdot x >10$ Given

2) $x > 5$ Compatibility with multiplication/Existence of multiplicative inverse/Associative property/Modulative property/Result. (Division property of inequality)

In consequence, the division property of inequality which states that:

$\forall\, a, b, c \in \mathbb{R}$ . If $c > 0$ , then:

$a> b\,\longrightarrow a\cdot c > b\cdot c \,\lor\, a$

But if $c < 0$ , then:

$a> b\,\longrightarrow a\cdot c < b\cdot c \,\lor\, a b\cdot c$

Hence, correct answer is A.

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3 years ago

What's the value of x if 7x-5 =5x+23

olya-2409 [2.1K]

7x-5=5x+23
7x-5x=23+5
2x=28
x=28/2
x=14

6 0

3 years ago

18. An urn contains 3 red balls, 2 green balls and 1 yellow ball. Three balls are selected at random and without replacement fro

Goryan [66]

Answer:

27.77%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of not drawn a red ball is 3/6. The probability of not drawn a green ball is 4/6, and the probability of not drawn a yellow ball is 5/6. So, the probability of not drawn at least one color is the multiplication of the probabilities of each color, so (3/6)*(5/6)*(4/6) = 0.2777.

5 0

3 years ago

Anyone understand this??Help please

Anna [14]

I think you have to choose any numbers in the graph to solve for Rafael and Ava

3 0

3 years ago

Belle is going to make chili for a football party. It will take 1 hour and 10 minutes to prepare all the ingredients and assembl

MrRa [10]

Answer:

1:10pm

Step-by-step explanation:

1st, you add all the time needed to make the chili & cook it.

1 hour + 10 minutes + 1 hour + 40 minutes = 2 hours & 50 minutes.

Now you work backwards from 4:00pm.

You go back 2 hours & you would be at 2:00pm

Now you go back another 50 minutes & you would be at 1:10pm

To double check, you can add 2 hours & 50 minutes to 1:10pm & you would get 4:00pm

6 0

2 years ago