All categories

3 years ago

Thirty-two divide by the opposite of 4

Mathematics

2 answers:

Alexus [3.1K]3 years ago

8 0

Hello there!

<u><em>The opposite 4 it should be the negative 4.</em></u>

Explanation:

↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓↓

$32/-4$

First you had to used apply the fraction rule.

$\frac{-32}{4}$

Then divide by the number.

$\frac{32}{4}=8$

$=-8$

<em><u>Answer⇒⇒⇒-8</u></em>

Hope this helps!

Thank you for posting your question at here on Brainly.

-Charlie

kvv77 [185]3 years ago

5 0

(8) if you mean -4 then it's (-8)

You might be interested in

Sort the words into a category based on whether they indicate a positive number or a negative number

ankoles [38]

Answer:

POSITIVE: gain, adding, above

NEGATIVE: loss, below, taking away

5 0

2 years ago

If f (x) = 8(5x-2) find f -1 (x).

saw5 [17]

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)=8(5x-2)

interchanging the role of x&y

x=8(5y-2)

x=40y-16
x+16=401y
y=(x+16)/40

f-1(x)=(x+16)/10

<h3>stay safe healthy and happy.</h3>

6 0

3 years ago

Joaquin bought a bookcase on sale for $120, which was two-thirds of the original price. What was the original price of the bookc

weqwewe [10]

180
Because 120 divided by 2 is 60.
And 120 + 60 is 180

7 0

3 years ago

According to government data, 20% of employed women have never been married. If 10 employed women are selected at random, what i

Ierofanga [76]

Answer:

a) $P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

b) $P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)$

$P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107$

$P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268$

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678$

c) For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302$

$P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268$

$P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 8) = 0.677$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\geq 8)=0.0000779$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Bin (n=10 ,p=0.2)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable "number of women that have never been married" , on this case we now that the distribution of the random variable is:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.2)$

Part a

We want to find this probability:

$P(X=2)$

And using the probability mass function we got:

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\leq 2) = P(X=0) + P(X=1) +P(X=2)$

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=0) = (10C0) (0.2)^0 (1-0.2)^{10-0}= 0.107$

$P(X=1) = (10C1) (0.2)^1 (1-0.2)^{10-1}= 0.268$

$P(X=2) = (10C2) (0.2)^2 (1-0.2)^{10-2}= 0.302$

And replacing we got:

$P(X\leq 2) = 0.107+0.268+0.302=0.678$

Part c

For this case we want this probability:

$P(X\geq 8) = P(X=8) + P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

But for this case the probability of success is p =1-0.2= 0.8

We can find the individual probabilities and we got:

$P(X=8) = (10C8) (0.8)^8 (1-0.8)^{10-8} =0.302$

$P(X=9) = (10C9) (0.8)^9 (1-0.8)^{10-9} =0.268$

$P(X=10) = (10C10) (0.8)^{10} (1-0.8)^{10-10} =0.107$

And replacing we got:

$P(X \geq 8) = 0.677$

3 0

3 years ago

Sara hina and Arslan have a total of RS 390in their wallet . Sara has Rs. 7more than Hina .Arslan has 3 times what sara has . Ho

Brums [2.3K]

Answer:Sara hina and Arslan Have RS79.4,RS 72.4 and RS238.2 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

Let the amount that hina has be x

the amount that sara has be represented as 7+x

and the amount that Arslan have be represented as 3(7+x)

such that the total amount in their wallet which is 390 can be expressed as

x+7+x + 3(7+x)=390

Step 2

Solving

x+7+x +21+3x=390

5x+28=390

5x==390-28

x=362/5=72.4

Hina has RS 72.4

Sara =7+x==72.4+77= RS 79.4

Arslan =3(7+x)=3 x 79.4=RS 238.2

5 0

3 years ago