Answer:
You will not have enough.
Explanation:
The rate of the investment is compounded, so the value at year 1, will be the value at year 0, increased in a 4%. Then, the value at year 2 will be the value at year 1, increased in other 4%, that's equal to the value at year 0 increased twice at 4%.
So, the formula to calculating the value at year 15 is 75,000*(1.04)^15 = 135,070.63. THen, it will not be enough. You have to invest at least 214,000/1.04^15 = 118,826.20 at year 0, at a rate of 4%.
Answer: $15
Explanation:
A copayment or copay simply refers to a fixed amount that is paid by a patient for a covered service, before the patient will receive service. It is an insurance policy which someone who's insured will pay whenever he or she access a medical service.
In this case, since the patient has a copay of $15, then the patient will have to pay $15.
Answer:
As a risk minimizer : Stock A has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.
The answer is A and B respectively
Explanation:
The standalone risk or standard deviation of the stocks is alleviated for a well diversified investor . So, in that case, the relevant risk would be the market risk or the beta.
When you see in isolation, relevant risk would be the standard deviation.
Therefore, as a risk minimizer : Stock A has the lowest standard deviation, thus, it should be chosen, if it is to be held in isolation . Also stock B has the lowest beta, thus,it should be chosen, if it is to be held as part of a well - diversified portfolio.
