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ycow [4]
3 years ago
5

Producers of a strong brand sometimes sell it to dealers only if the dealers will take some or all of the rest of its line. This

is known as​ full-line forcing. Which of the following statements is true regarding​ full-line forcing?
A.It is always illegal.
B.It is always legal.
C.It may or may not be legal.
D.It is only legal in New​ York, California and Texas.
E.It is only illegal in Europe.
Business
1 answer:
never [62]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

Full line forcing is the term which is described as the supplier or the producer which insistence the dealer that must carry the full range of the products in the line.

The policy may or may not be illegal if it could be established that it could serve the legitimate need of the business.

You might be interested in
ASC 480-10 provides guidance on determining whether (1) certain financial instruments with both debt-like and equity-like charac
Aliun [14]

Answer:

. Redeemable shares.

• Redeemable noncontrolling interests.

• Forward contracts to repurchase own shares.

• Forward contracts to sell redeemable shares.

• Written put options on own stock.

• Warrants (and written call options) on redeemable equity shares.

• Warrants on shares with deemed liquidation provisions.

• Puttable warrants on own stock.

• Equity collars.

• Share-settled debt (this term is used to describe a share-settled obligation that  is not in the legal form of debt but has the same economic payoff profile as debt).

• Preferred shares that are mandatorily convertible into a variable number of common shares.

• Unsettled treasury stock transactions.

• Accelerated share repurchase programs.

• Hybrid equity units.

Explanation:

ASC 480-10 is used when an issuer, in the declaration of its financial position, has to categorize some financial instruments that share the characteristics of liabilities and equities. The issuer always classifies legal-form debt as liability and this makes it not applicable under the ASC 480-10.

Under the ASC 480-10, three types of financial instruments are meant to be classified and they include;

1. Mandatorily redeemable financial instruments

2. Obligations to repurchase the entity’s equity shares by transferring assets, and

3.Certain obligations to issue a variable number of equity shares

6 0
3 years ago
Assume a speculator anticipates that the spot rate of the franc in three months will be lower than today’s three-month forward r
Oksi-84 [34.3K]

Answer:

Assume a speculator anticipates that the spot rate of the franc in three months will be lower than today’s three-month forward rate of the franc, .

a. The speculator can use $1 million to speculate in the forward market by purchasing a forward contract for 2,000,000 francs to be paid out in three months. This helps the speculator avoid losing money as the exchange rate decreases in period of three months.

b. Suppose the franc’s spot rate in three months is $0.40:

This means that the dollar is expected to appreciate in three months because its current rate is. It would take fewer dollars to purchase one franc in three months. The demand for dollars would increase because speculators looking to make a profit would hold as many dollars as possible while waiting for the currency to appreciate, then sell it for more than they purchased it for.

Hence, the speculator could make a profit of $0.10 on each franc.

Suppose the franc’s spot rate in three months is $0.60:

This means that the dollar is expected to depreciate in three months because its current rate is. It would take more dollars to purchase one franc in three months. The demand for dollars would decrease because speculators are expecting the currency’s value to fall in the coming three months.

The speculator would suffer a loss of $0.10 on each franc.

Suppose the franc’s spot rate in three months is $0.50:

This means that the value of the dollar is expected stay the same because its current rate is. It would take the same amount of dollars to purchase one franc in three months. The demand for dollars would remain constant.

The speculator would earn no profit no loss when the Franc’s spot rate in 3 months is $0.50.

Explanation:

7 0
4 years ago
Your uncle is about to retire, and he wants to buy an annuity that will provide him with $75,000 of income a year for 20 years,
kolezko [41]

Answer:

It cost $915,166.69

Explanation:

R=75,000

i=j/m, j=0.0525, m=1 - annually

i=0.0525

n=mt

n=20

An=R[1-(1+i)^-n] : i

An=(75,000x[1-(1+0.0525)^-20]) : 0.0525

An=$ 915,166.69

8 0
4 years ago
Assume the Fed creates excess reserves in the banking system by buying government bonds, but banks do not make more loans becaus
seropon [69]

Answer: Cyclical asymmetry

Explanation:

In economics, Cyclical asymmetry is defined as

A value that represents a large imbalance in economic factors due to genuine cyclical reactions by a country or market.

It includes employment rates,  interest rates, debt retention, bond strengths, or stock market imbalances.

If we assume the Fed creates excess reserves in the banking system by buying government bonds, but banks do not make more loans because economic conditions are bad.

Since this happens due to the cyclical reaction of the government.

This means that,

This situation is a problem of <u>cyclical asymmetry</u>.

8 0
3 years ago
A firm has earnings before interest and taxes of $27,130, net income of $16,220, and taxes of $5,450 for the year. While the fir
grin007 [14]

Answer:

The correct answer is e. -$4,940.

Explanation:

This problem requires us to calculate the amount of the cash flow to creditors. The cash flow to creditor means all payment made to creditors in form of interest payment or principal payment. The amount borrowed is deducted from it. The detail calculation is given below.

Interest =  Earning before interest and taxes - Net income - Taxes

Interest = 27,130 - 16,220 - 5,450

Interest = $ 5,460

Cash flow to creditors = 31,600 + 5,460 - 42,000 = -$ 4,940

6 0
4 years ago
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