Answer:
the annual pre-tax cost of debt is 10.56%
Explanation:
the beore-tax component cost of debt will be the actual market rate of the bonds, as they offer an interest rate of 11% but are selling at 104 points not at par thus, there is a difference between the rates.
We solve for the rate which makes the coupon and maturity 104
with excel or a financial calculator
PV of the coupon payment
C 5.500 (100 x 11%/2)
time 60 (30 years x 2 payment per year)
rate <em>0.052787474</em>
PV $99.4338
PV of the maturity
Maturity 100.00
time 60.00
rate <em>0.052787474</em>
PV 4.57
<em><u>Adding both we should get 104 which is the amount the bonds is selling:</u></em>
PV coupon $99.4338 + PV maturity $4.5662 = $104.0000
The rate is generated using goal seek or wiht a financial calculator.
This rate is a semiannual rate, so we multiply by 2 to get the annual cost of debt:
0.052787474 x 2 = 0.105574947
The cost of debt for the firm is 10.56%
The correct answer is <span>a.Because an older person has less time to make up for bad investments
Young people have their entire life to fix their bad investments and can invest into new things that are up and coming and developing. Older people don't have time for that and have to approach investments differently.</span>
Answer:
Flashfone and Pictech
a. If Flashfone prices high, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low___ price, and if Flashfone prices low, Pictech will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)___low____ price.
b. If Pictech prices high, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a(high,low)__low____price, and if Pictech prices low, Flashfone will make more profit if it chooses a (high,low) __low____ price.
c. Considering all of the information given, pricing high (is, is not) _is not_ a dominant strategy for both Flashfone and Pictech.
Explanation:
a) Data and Calculations:
Pictech Pricing
High Low
Flashfone Pricing High 11, 11 2, 18
Low 18, 2 10, 10
b) A dominant strategy exists if Pictech or Flashfone would implement a particular strategy that benefits it no matter what the other firm does.
Correct answer choices are :
A) They request a bank loan.
D) They agree to sell stocks.
E) They issue bonds.
Explanation:
Also, interest paid on bonds is a tax-deductible business investment for the organization. The problem is that interest payments generally are made on bonds even when no profits are earned. For this reason, a smaller corporation can sometimes raise much capital by issuing bonds.
A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows.
for better understanding lets explain what conventional peg means
- conventional peg as related to when country formally (de jure) pinpoint their own currency at a fixed rate to the currency of another said country example is, from the currencies of major trading or financial partners and weights showing on the distribution of trade in different geographical zones
- The known backbone or anchor currency or basket weights are public or notified to the IMF and a country authorities are able to maintain the fixed parity through direct intervention
From the above, we can therefore say that the answer A conventional peg refers to when a country formally pegs its currency at a fixed rate to another currency or basket of currencies where the basket reflects the geographic distribution of trade, services, or capital flows is correct.
learn more about exchange rates from:
brainly.com/question/21384395