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ivanzaharov [21]
3 years ago
5

Plz plz help ASAP about to fail

Mathematics
1 answer:
dangina [55]3 years ago
7 0
BRAINLIEST ANSWERRRRRR 385 centimeters cubed ur welcome
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For the polynomial 6xy2 – 5x2y? + 9x2 to be a trinomial with a degree of 3 after it has been fully simplified, the missing expon
Karolina [17]

Consider the polynomial 6xy^2-5x^2y^?+9x^2.

For this polynomial to be trinomial with a degree of 3. We have to identify the missing exponent of the 'y' term.

Let the missing exponent of the 'y' term be 0

So, the polynomial will be 6xy^2-5x^2y^0+9x^2

= 6xy^2-5x^2+9x^2

= 6xy^2+4x^2 which is not a trinomial, which is a binomial.

So, the missing exponent of 'y' can'not be zero.

Let the missing exponent of the 'y' term be 2

So, the polynomial will be 6xy^2-5x^2y^2+9x^2

= 6xy^2-5x^2y^2+9x^2

= 6xy^2-5x^2y^2+9x^2 which is a trinomial of degree 4.

So, the missing exponent of 'y' can'not be '2'.

If we will take the missing exponent of 'y' more than 2, than the degree of the given polynomial will not be 3 anymore.

Let the missing exponent of the 'y' term be 1

So, the polynomial will be 6xy^2-5x^2y^1+9x^2

= 6xy^2-5x^2y+9x^2

= 6xy^2+4x^2 which is a trinomial of degree 3

So, the missing exponent of 'y' is 1.

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What desmal is inbetween 1/2 and 3/4
Elis [28]

Answer:

1/2 = 0.5

3/4 = 0.75

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
2 years ago
G = {(5, 3), (2, 3), (6, 4)} Is G-1 a function and why?
galben [10]
To get G^-1 all we need to do is flip the points around Example for (5,3) make it (3,5)
Here are the points in inverse (3,5); (3,2); (4,6)
To tell if a group of point can be a function we need to 1st look at the x values.  If all the x values are different, then it is a function (the x's are not all different)
If there are x values that are the same, they MUST have the same y value.
look at the points (3,5) and (3,2) those have the same x but they go to different y values so it is not a function.

You can think about it like this.  Can you go to more than 1 place at the EXACT same time?  Obvious answer is no. Can you have multiple people go to the same room?  Sure that is possible.  Same with functions.  An x value can ONLY go to 1 y value, and many different x values can go to the same y value.
4 0
3 years ago
Help on #6 and if you can #5
alexgriva [62]
You subtract y from 425, I can read #5 or is help
4 0
4 years ago
We have n = 100 many random variables Xi ’s, where the Xi ’s are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variab
777dan777 [17]

Answer:

(a) The distribution of X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}} is a Binomial distribution.

(b) The sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

(c) The value of P(\bar X>0.50) is 0.50.

Step-by-step explanation:

It is provided that random variables X_{i} are independent and identically distributed Bernoulli random variables with <em>p</em> = 0.50.

The random sample selected is of size, <em>n</em> = 100.

(a)

Theorem:

Let X_{1},\ X_{2},\ X_{3},...\ X_{n} be independent Bernoulli random variables, each with parameter <em>p</em>, then the sum of of thee random variables, X=X_{1}+X_{2}+X_{3}...+X_{n} is a Binomial random variable with parameter <em>n</em> and <em>p</em>.

Thus, the distribution of X=\sum\limits^{n}_{i=1}{X_{i}} is a Binomial distribution.

(b)

According to the Central Limit Theorem if we have an unknown population with mean <em>μ</em> and standard deviation <em>σ</em> and appropriately huge random samples (<em>n</em> > 30) are selected from the population with replacement, then the distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normally distributed.  

The sample size is large, i.e. <em>n</em> = 100 > 30.

So, the sampling distribution of the sample mean will be approximately normal.

The mean of the distribution of sample mean is given by,

\mu_{\bar x}=\mu=p=0.50

And the standard deviation of the distribution of sample mean is given by,

\sigma_{\bar x}=\sqrt{\frac{\sigma^{2}}{n}}=\sqrt{\frac{p(1-p)}{n}}=0.05

(c)

Compute the value of P(\bar X>0.50) as follows:

P(\bar X>0.50)=P(\frac{\bar X-\mu_{\bar x}}{\sigma_{\bar x}}>\frac{0.50-0.50}{0.05})\\

                    =P(Z>0)\\=1-P(Z

*Use a <em>z</em>-table.

Thus, the value of P(\bar X>0.50) is 0.50.

8 0
3 years ago
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