Step-by-step explanation:
The probability of winning at least once is equal to 1 minus the probability of not winning any.
P(x≥1) = 1 - P(x=0)
P(x≥1) = 1 - (1-0.11)^4
P(x≥1) = 1 - (0.89)^4
P(x≥1) = 0.373
The probability is approximately 0.373.
Answer:
17 students could not give the correct answer
Step-by-step explanation:
42.5% is a fraction = 42.5/100
we can make this into an equation
42.5/100 = x/40
multpiply both sides by 40
x = 17
Answer:
ax(x+1)
ax(x+a)
Step-by-step explanation:
ax² + ax
= ax(x+1)
ax² + a²x
= ax(x+a)
hope it helps ☺️
2 4/5 ÷ 3 1/2 + 1/5 = 1
explanation:
Convert the mixed numbers to improper fractions, then find the LCD and combine.
hope this helps <3
Thank you for posting your question here at brainly. I hope the answer will help you. Feel free to ask more questions.
Below are the choices:
A. Kyle’s equation has a negative y-intercept, but the scatterplot shows a point on the y-axis with a positive y-value.
B. Kyle’s equation has a negative y-intercept, but the scatterplot shows a positive correlation.
C. Kyle’s equation has a negative slope, but the scatterplot shows a point on the y-axis with a positive y-value.
<span>D. Kyle’s equation has a negative slope, but the scatterplot shows a positive correlation.
</span>
The answer is D.
